How to lock multiple table rows in postgresql? - database

I have two tables, i will leave the create table statements for both of them below.
I would like to know if it is possible to lock the corresponding rows in currency_details when someone is modifying a row on currency and vice versa.
CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS currency (
id VARCHAR(8),
name VARCHAR(20),
PRIMARY KEY (id)
);
CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS currency_details (
id VARCHAR(8) REFERENCES currency ON DELETE CASCADE,
info VARCHAR(80),
PRIMARY KEY (id)
);

The only locks that are taken automatically is a FOR KEY SHARE row lock on currency if you insert rows into currency_details.
Other than that, you could write a trigger that performs an appropriate SELECT ... FOR UPDATE on the other table.
But that is an unusual requirement; perhaps it is not really necessary to lock those rows.

Related

SQL Server check constraints - only one particular value per group [duplicate]

How could I set a constraint on a table so that only one of the records has its isDefault bit field set to 1?
The constraint is not table scope, but one default per set of rows, specified by a FormID.
Use a unique filtered index
On SQL Server 2008 or higher you can simply use a unique filtered index
CREATE UNIQUE INDEX IX_TableName_FormID_isDefault
ON TableName(FormID)
WHERE isDefault = 1
Where the table is
CREATE TABLE TableName(
FormID INT NOT NULL,
isDefault BIT NOT NULL
)
For example if you try to insert many rows with the same FormID and isDefault set to 1 you will have this error:
Cannot insert duplicate key row in object 'dbo.TableName' with unique
index 'IX_TableName_FormID_isDefault'. The duplicate key value is (1).
Source: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc280372.aspx
Here's a modification of Damien_The_Unbeliever's solution that allows one default per FormID.
CREATE VIEW form_defaults
AS
SELECT FormID
FROM whatever
WHERE isDefault = 1
GO
CREATE UNIQUE CLUSTERED INDEX ix_form_defaults on form_defaults (FormID)
GO
But the serious relational folks will tell you this information should just be in another table.
CREATE TABLE form
FormID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY
DefaultWhateverID int FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES Whatever(ID)
From a normalization perspective, this would be an inefficient way of storing a single fact.
I would opt to hold this information at a higher level, by storing (in a different table) a foreign key to the identifier of the row which is considered to be the default.
CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Foo](
[Id] [int] NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT [PK_Foo] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED
(
[Id] ASC
) ON [PRIMARY]
) ON [PRIMARY]
GO
CREATE TABLE [dbo].[DefaultSettings](
[DefaultFoo] [int] NULL
) ON [PRIMARY]
GO
ALTER TABLE [dbo].[DefaultSettings] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_DefaultSettings_Foo] FOREIGN KEY([DefaultFoo])
REFERENCES [dbo].[Foo] ([Id])
GO
ALTER TABLE [dbo].[DefaultSettings] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_DefaultSettings_Foo]
GO
You could use an insert/update trigger.
Within the trigger after an insert or update, if the count of rows with isDefault = 1 is more than 1, then rollback the transaction.
CREATE VIEW vOnlyOneDefault
AS
SELECT 1 as Lock
FROM <underlying table>
WHERE Default = 1
GO
CREATE UNIQUE CLUSTERED INDEX IX_vOnlyOneDefault on vOnlyOneDefault (Lock)
GO
You'll need to have the right ANSI settings turned on for this.
I don't know about SQLServer.But if it supports Function-Based Indexes like in Oracle, I hope this can be translated, if not, sorry.
You can do an index like this on suposed that default value is 1234, the column is DEFAULT_COLUMN and ID_COLUMN is the primary key:
CREATE
UNIQUE
INDEX only_one_default
ON my_table
( DECODE(DEFAULT_COLUMN, 1234, -1, ID_COLUMN) )
This DDL creates an unique index indexing -1 if the value of DEFAULT_COLUMN is 1234 and ID_COLUMN in any other case. Then, if two columns have DEFAULT_COLUMN value, it raises an exception.
The question implies to me that you have a primary table that has some child records and one of those child records will be the default record. Using address and a separate default table here is an example of how to make that happen using third normal form. Of course I don't know if it's valuable to answer something that is so old but it struck my fancy.
--drop table dev.defaultAddress;
--drop table dev.addresses;
--drop table dev.people;
CREATE TABLE [dev].[people](
[Id] [int] identity primary key,
name char(20)
)
GO
CREATE TABLE [dev].[Addresses](
id int identity primary key,
peopleId int foreign key references dev.people(id),
address varchar(100)
) ON [PRIMARY]
GO
CREATE TABLE [dev].[defaultAddress](
id int identity primary key,
peopleId int foreign key references dev.people(id),
addressesId int foreign key references dev.addresses(id))
go
create unique index defaultAddress on dev.defaultAddress (peopleId)
go
create unique index idx_addr_id_person on dev.addresses(peopleid,id);
go
ALTER TABLE dev.defaultAddress
ADD CONSTRAINT FK_Def_People_Address
FOREIGN KEY(peopleID, addressesID)
REFERENCES dev.Addresses(peopleId, id)
go
insert into dev.people (name)
select 'Bill' union
select 'John' union
select 'Harry'
insert into dev.Addresses (peopleid, address)
select 1, '123 someplace' union
select 1,'work place' union
select 2,'home address' union
select 3,'some address'
insert into dev.defaultaddress (peopleId, addressesid)
select 1,1 union
select 2,3
-- so two home addresses are default now
-- try adding another default address to Bill and you get an error
select * from dev.people
join dev.addresses on people.id = addresses.peopleid
left join dev.defaultAddress on defaultAddress.peopleid = people.id and defaultaddress.addressesid = addresses.id
insert into dev.defaultaddress (peopleId, addressesId)
select 1,2
GO
You could do it through an instead of trigger, or if you want it as a constraint create a constraint that references a function that checks for a row that has the default set to 1
EDIT oops, needs to be <=
Create table mytable(id1 int, defaultX bit not null default(0))
go
create Function dbo.fx_DefaultExists()
returns int as
Begin
Declare #Ret int
Set #ret = 0
Select #ret = count(1) from mytable
Where defaultX = 1
Return #ret
End
GO
Alter table mytable add
CONSTRAINT [CHK_DEFAULT_SET] CHECK
(([dbo].fx_DefaultExists()<=(1)))
GO
Insert into mytable (id1, defaultX) values (1,1)
Insert into mytable (id1, defaultX) values (2,1)
This is a fairly complex process that cannot be handled through a simple constraint.
We do this through a trigger. However before you write the trigger you need to be able to answer several things:
do we want to fail the insert if a default exists, change it to 0 instead of 1 or change the existing default to 0 and leave this one as 1?
what do we want to do if the default record is deleted and other non default records are still there? Do we make one the default, if so how do we determine which one?
You will also need to be very, very careful to make the trigger handle multiple row processing. For instance a client might decide that all of the records of a particular type should be the default. You wouldn't change a million records one at a time, so this trigger needs to be able to handle that. It also needs to handle that without looping or the use of a cursor (you really don't want the type of transaction discussed above to take hours locking up the table the whole time).
You also need a very extensive tesing scenario for this trigger before it goes live. You need to test:
adding a record with no default and it is the first record for that customer
adding a record with a default and it is the first record for that customer
adding a record with no default and it is the not the first record for that customer
adding a record with a default and it is the not the first record for that customer
Updating a record to have the default when no other record has it (assuming you don't require one record to always be set as the deafault)
Updating a record to remove the default
Deleting the record with the deafult
Deleting a record without the default
Performing a mass insert with multiple situations in the data including two records which both have isdefault set to 1 and all of the situations tested when running individual record inserts
Performing a mass update with multiple situations in the data including two records which both have isdefault set to 1 and all of the situations tested when running individual record updates
Performing a mass delete with multiple situations in the data including two records which both have isdefault set to 1 and all of the situations tested when running individual record deletes
#Andy Jones gave an answer above closest to mine, but bearing in mind the Rule of Three, I placed the logic directly in the stored proc that updates this table. This was my simple solution. If I need to update the table from elsewhere, I will move the logic to a trigger. The one default rule applies to each set of records specified by a FormID and a ConfigID:
ALTER proc [dbo].[cpForm_UpdateLinkedReport]
#reportLinkId int,
#defaultYN bit,
#linkName nvarchar(150)
as
if #defaultYN = 1
begin
declare #formId int, #configId int
select #formId = FormID, #configId = ConfigID from csReportLink where ReportLinkID = #reportLinkId
update csReportLink set DefaultYN = 0 where isnull(ConfigID, #configId) = #configId and FormID = #formId
end
update
csReportLink
set
DefaultYN = #defaultYN,
LinkName = #linkName
where
ReportLinkID = #reportLinkId

value must exists in both tables

I've got two tables:
create table customer
(
cust_id
cust_name
)
create table customerphone
(
customerphone_phone,
cust_id,
)
cust_id must exists in both tables, how can i check this?
This cannot be done with Declarative Referential Integrity (DRI) alone. Adding a foreign key constraint is only part of the solution. You will also need to need to wrap a transaction and business logic around the inserts to the 2 tables. I recommend doing this in a stored procedure so that it operates as an atomic operation from the perspective of the application.
Begin Transaction
Logic around inserting a Customer
Logic around inserting CustomerPhone row
If the newly added Customer has a CustomerPhone
Commit Transaction
Else
Rollback Transaction
Make cust_id a primary key on the table customer.
Then make cust_id a foreign key on the table customerphone, which points back to cust_id on customer.
Then you can only add rows to customerphone if the cust_id already exists in customer.
You can use cust_id from customer as PRIMARY KEY, and use a FOREIGN KEY to restrict the cust_id in customerphone.
You can guide yourself using this manual:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms175464(v=sql.105).aspx

MSSQL - Foreign key to the same column IF other column is not equal to the referring row

I have a database in which i have two tables:
CREATE TABLE Transactions (
ID BIGINT IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL,
AccountID BIGINT NOT NULL,
Amount BIGINT NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT PK_Transactions PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED (ID ASC,AccountID ASC),
CONSTRAINT FK_Transaction_Account FOREIGN KEY (AccountID) REFERENCES Accounts(ID)
);
CREATE TABLE Accounts (
ID BIGINT IDENTITY(1,11) NOT NULL,
Balance BIGINT NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT PK_Accounts PRIMARY KEY (ID)
);
Transactions are inserted to their table by a stored procedure i wrote, so that two rows are generated when Account 1 transfers 25 "coins" to Account 21:
ID | AccountID | Amount
-------------------------
1 | 1 | -25
-------------------------
1 | 21 | 25
In the above schema, i want the first row to reference the bottom row based on ID and the AccountID being unequal to the AccountID of the bottom row.
And vica versa.
What i want to do would look something like this:
CONSTRAINT FK_Transaction_Counterpart FOREIGN KEY (ID) REFERENCES Transactions(ID) WHERE thisRow.AccountID != referencedRow.AccountID
I haven't found this possibility in the documentation on the table constraints.
So both out of curiosity and intent to use this i ask, is this possible? And if yes, how?
Edit:
Answers reflect that this is not possible, and i should adjust my design or intentions.
I think i will settle with assigning the two transaction rows to each other in the functional code.
A traditional foreign key can't be conditional (i.e. no WHERE clause attached). In your case, I'd probably just make sure that the inserts are atomic (in the same transaction) so that there'd be no possibility of only one of them inserting.
If the data model you are trying to implement is:
One transaction (ID) has two and only two entries in table Transactions
For the two rows of a given Transaction ID, the AccountIDs cannot be the same
Then one perhaps overly-complex way you could enforce this business rule within the database table structures would be as follows:
Table Accounts, as you have defined
Table Transactions, as you have defined
New table TransactionPair with:
Columns (all are NOT NULL)
ID
LowAccountID
HighAccountID
Constraints
Primary key on ID (only one entry per Transaction ID)
Foreign key on (ID, LowAccountID) into Transactions
Foreign key on (ID, HighAccountID) into Transactions
Check constraint on the row such that LowAccountID < HighAccountID
Process:
Add pair of rows to Transactions table
Add single row to TransactionPair referencing the rows just added
If that row cannot be added, something failed, roll everything back
Seems neat and tidy, but quite possibly overly complex. Your mileage may vary.

One to many dynamic database relations issue

I just need some confirmation is database designed like this is fine or not. And if not am I doing something wrong here.
I have following tables:
TableA{TableAID,...}
TableB{TableBID,...}
TableC{TableCID,...}
etc.
And I have one table that I use like some kind of 'news feed'. When I add something in any table A,B,C I also add row in this table.
Feed{FeedID, TypeID, ReferenceID,...}
FeedID is PK auto increment
TypeID is number that reference types table and based on this ID I know is row in this table from table A,B,C.
ReferenceId is ID of item in tables A,B,C.
A,B,C tables all have different fields.
Now when I want to get feed data I also need to grab some data from each of this table to use it in application. In my query to get this I use a lot SELECT CASE CLAUSE like:
I first join to all tables in query (A,B,C)
...
CASE Feed.TypeId
WHEN 1 THEN tableA.someData
WHEN 2 THEN tableB.someData
WHEN 3 THEN tableC.someData
END AS Data,
...
Without getting into suitability of this for a specific purpose, your supertype-subtype model is "reversed".
So DDL looks something like
CREATE TABLE Feed (
FeedID integer IDENTITY(1,1) not null
, FeedType char(1) not null
-- Common_Columns_Here
, Common_Column varchar(20)
);
ALTER TABLE Feed ADD CONSTRAINT pk_Feed PRIMARY KEY (FeedID) ;
CREATE TABLE Feed_A (
FeedID integer not null
-- A_Specific_Columns_Here
, A_Specific_Column varchar(20)
);
ALTER TABLE Feed_A ADD
CONSTRAINT pk_Feed_A PRIMARY KEY (FeedID)
, CONSTRAINT fk1_Feed_A FOREIGN KEY (FeedID) REFERENCES Feed(FeedID) ;
CREATE TABLE Feed_B (
FeedID integer not null
-- B_Specific_Columns_Here
, B_Specific_Column varchar(20)
);
ALTER TABLE Feed_B ADD
CONSTRAINT pk_Feed_B PRIMARY KEY (FeedID)
, CONSTRAINT fk1_Feed_B FOREIGN KEY (FeedID) REFERENCES Feed(FeedID) ;
CREATE TABLE Feed_C (
FeedID integer not null
-- C_Specific_Columns_Here
, C_Specific_Column varchar(20)
);
ALTER TABLE Feed_C ADD
CONSTRAINT pk_Feed_C PRIMARY KEY (FeedID)
, CONSTRAINT fk1_Feed_C FOREIGN KEY (FeedID) REFERENCES Feed(FeedID) ;
Now, in order to read from this structure, create a view first
create view vFeed as
select
f.FeedID
, FeedType
, Common_Column
, A_Specific_Column
, B_Specific_Column
, C_Specific_Column
from Feed as f
left join Feed_A as a on (a.FeedID = f.FeedID and f.FeedType = 'A')
left join Feed_B as b on (b.FeedID = f.FeedID and f.FeedType = 'B')
left join Feed_C as c on (c.FeedID = f.FeedID and f.FeedType = 'C')
;
Look what happens when I want to select data which I know is from feed A. Note that FeedType is not specified in this query, only column name which belongs to Feed_A (and common column).
select
FeedID
, Common_Column
, A_Specific_Column
from vFeed;
Notice that execution plan shows only Feed and Feed_A tables, query optimizer eliminated tables _B and _C; no need to touch those two.
In other words, you can ask for a specific feed data by simply using only specific columns in a query, and let the optimizer sort everything else out -- no need for CASE ... WHEN .. acrobatics from your example.
As I suggested in my comment (and along with #Andomar's wisdom), I think something like this would work better:
CREATE TABLE dbo.FeedTypes
(
FeedTypeID INT IDENTITY(1,1) PRIMARY KEY,
SomedataA INT,
SomedataB VARCHAR(32),
SomedataC DATETIME
--, ... other columns
);
CREATE TABLE dbo.Feeds
(
FeedID INT IDENTITY(1,1) PRIMARY KEY,
FeedTypeID INT NOT NULL FOREIGN KEY
REFERENCES dbo.FeedTypes(FeedTypeID)
--, ... other columns
);
You could enforce the presence/absence of data in the relevant columns for a given type using complex check constraints or triggers. But you'd have to have pretty complex logic (as you would in your current model) if a feed can change types easily.
Add all the data you wish to display in the "News Feed" in the Feed table. It is duplicate data, but it will make your life a lot easier in the long run.
It also ensures that your newsfeed stays historically correct. This means that when I update a record in one of the three tables, the "old" feed data stays intact instead of being updated with the new values.

Mysql auto increment alternatives

I have the below table.
create table mytable(
physical_id int auto_increment,
logical_id int,
data varchar(20),
version_start_date datetime,
version_end_date datetime,
primary key(physical_id),
unique key(logical_id,version_start_date, version_end_date)
);
The idea behind the schema is, I want to keep track of modification to
every row and find the valid row on any particular date by checking the
version_start_date and version_end_date. I want my logical id to be
auto_increment, but mysql allows only one id to be auto_increment.
So, I want to set logical_id to physical_id, when creating a new row. I
am able to do it using the trigger.
delimiter $$
create trigger myTrigger before insert on mytable for each row begin set
new.logical_id = (select auto_increment from information_schema.tables
where table_schema = database() and table_name = 'mytable') ; end$$
delimiter ;
Few other options I checked out are, http://feedblog.org/2007/06/20/portable-sequence-generation-with-mysql/ and http://www.redhat.com/docs/en-US/JBoss_Hibernate/3.2.4.sp01.cp03/html/Reference_Guide/Native_SQL-Custom_SQL_for_create_update_and_delete.html
The problem with these approaches is, I have to create a new sequence table and keep inserting a record into that table.
Is there a better alternative?
Thank you
Bala
-- Update
I am not sure why #tpdi, why I need parent, when I can just emulate this with below table.
create table logical_id_seq (
logical_id int auto_increment,
primary key(logical_id)
);
create table mytable (
physical_id int auto_increment,
logical_id int not null references parent(logical_id),
data varchar(20),
version_start_date datetime not null,
version_end_date datetime not null,
primary key(physical_id),
foreign key (logical_id) references logical_id_seq(logical_id),
unique key (logical_id,version_start_date,version_end_date)
);
This is why I prefer Oracle/PostgreSQL sequences to MySQL's auto_increment and SQL Server's IDENTITY - you'd be able to define multiple sequences for this.
Creating a separate table solely for a column in order to use auto_increment for an additional auto_increment is the best solution I can think of, accessed via trigger or stored procedure.
Why wouldn't you want to have a table with the current version, and then an additional table for a history? Then, you use an insert into the current version table to generate your ID, and only query the history table when you actually need the history information.
Now I understand your issue :). Changing my answer.
You will need to use some trigger so that whenever some row is edited logical id is incremented by 1 finding max of logical id available in table.
create table parent (
logical_id int auto_increment,
physical_id int null references mytable(id)
);
create table mytable(
physical_id int auto_increment,
logical_id not null references parent(logical_id),
data varchar(20),
version_start_date datetime,
version_end_date datetime,
primary key(physical_id)
);
To insert a new instance of an existing record, insert into mytable ...., then capture new mytable.id, and update parent's physical_id with it (possibly in a trigger).
Now, to look up the current record, look up the logical id in parent, and use parent.physical_id to join to the correct record in "mytable"
Parent points to the current valid record (of all records) in "mytable".
To find all instances of a logical record, use the logical_id in "mytable".
To insert a wholly new record, first insert into parent to get the new logical_id, then insert the data in "mytable"; this is why we allow parent.physical_id to be nullable.
As to the OP's update: yes, you can "emulate" by just "stealing" a sequence, but that doesn't model what's really going on. "Stealing" the sequence is just an implementation detail; having two tables as I've shown above makes explicit what's really going on, namely: I have a current state (which parent points to) in "mytable", and 0, 1 or many prior states in "mytable". It's a cleaner separation of concerns, a table that tells you "what's current for any id", and a table that tells you "the data of that current state, and the data of prior states".

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