Sybase IQ is new to me.
In my Schema, I have 225 tables and 100 stored procedures. Attempting to alter the owner of every object. I was able to change the owner of Tables using the ALTER command. However, it is not working for stored procedures.
There's no direct way to change procedure's owner on IQ. But maybe you can use workaround --
How about "setuser" ? Using "setuser" to set your current dbuser as the procedure's owner... eg.
setuser 'oldprocowner';
call <procedure_name>;
...
Related
Let's say that in a multi-schema db we have these 2 procs:
Create proc S1004.proc1
As
Exec proc2
GO
Create proc S1004.proc2
As
Select 1
Then, when I try to run proc1 from sa login, sql issues an error : Could not find stored procedure 'proc2'.
I know that if we add schema to proc2 in the body of proc1, then it can resolve the schema.
Is there any other solution for this problem.
If you can use your schema in the 'scope' of user (be aware that users and schemas are separated in SQL Server), you could get away with this:
CREATE USER S1004 FOR LOGIN S1004 WITH DEFAULT_SCHEMA = S1004;
GO
CREATE PROCEDURE S1004.proc1
WITH EXECUTE AS 'S1004'
AS
EXECUTE proc2
GO
CREATE PROCEDURE S1004.proc2
AS
SELECT 1
EXEC S1004.proc1
What happens here is that you create user S1004 with a default schema with the same name. That schema will be searched for object when object is not found immediately in the scope of current schema.
When you need to resolve your schema in a procedure, you run the procedure in the context of that user (see WITH EXECUTE AS 'S1004') and schema resolution will succeed.
However, pay attention that this changes execution scope to the another user. It's a workaround, but under the circumstances it's the best you can get.
I have a stored procedure in SQL Server 2008 such as:
CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[test]
AS
BEGIN
SET NOCOUNT ON;
SELECT user_name();
SELECT SCHEMA_NAME()
SELECT * FROM MyView
END
I have a view named testuser.MyView. I then call the SP using:
exec as user = 'testuser' exec test
This shows the user_name and SCHEMA_NAME are both set to testuser
However I also get a Invalid object name 'MyView'. message, as the SP is still looking up the view name in the dbo schema.
Is there anyway to change how the SP is executed so the MyView object references testuser.MyView without having to use a fully qualified name?
I am trying to use a single set of many stored procedures, on identical table structures in different schemas. I really want to avoid rewriting all the SPs using dynamic SQL, or to create copies of all the SPs each using qualified names.
Unqualified object names are resolved using the module owner's default schema. This behavior can't be changed so you'll need to resort to the other methods you mentioned.
Since you already create separate tables and views for each user with the same structure, why not create stored procedures in the user's schema at the same time?
I have a database with stored procedures which selects data from another database
select * from Users in AnotherDatabase.dbo.Users
I have a couple of versions of the other database, i.e.
AnotherDatabaseProduction, AnotherDatabaseDevelopment, AnotherDatabaseStage
I remember a while back that I created some kind of global variable like AnotherDatabase_Pointer which I could set by running some stored procedure like SetAnotherDatabaseToStage:
AnotherDatabase_Pointer = 'AnotherDatabaseStage' //pseudo-code
Which I could then use in my stored procedures.
But I cannot seem to remember how it was done. All I can find is how to do this with string replacing/concatenating: variable database name :(
Is this possible? MS SQL.
You are probably thinking of a Synonym.
CREATE SYNONYM dbo.whatever FOR dbname.dbo.procedure_name;
Now, if you want to change it to some other database, you just drop and re-create the synonym:
DROP SYNONYM dbo.whatever;
GO
CREATE SYNONYM dbo.whatever FOR other_dbname.dbo.procedure_name;
I have a SQL Server 2008 database where all access to the underlying tables is done through stored procedures. Some stored procedures simply SELECT records from the tables while others UPDATE, INSERT, and DELETE.
If a stored procedure UPDATES a table does the user executing the stored procedure also need UPDATE permissions to the affected tables or is the fact that they have EXECUTE permissions to the stored procedure enough?
Basically I am wondering if giving the user EXECUTE permissions to the stored procedures is enough or do I need to give them SELECT, UPDATE, DELETE, and INSERT permissions to the tables in order for the stored procedures to work. Thank you.
[EDIT] In most of my stored procedures it does indeed appear that EXECUTE is enough. However, I did find that in stored procedures where "Execute sp_Executesql" was used that EXECUTE was not enough. The tables involved needed to have permissions for the actions being performed within "sp_Executesql".
Permissions on tables are not checked (including DENY) if tables and proc have the same owner. They can be in different schemas too as long as the schemas have the same owner.
See Ownership chaining on MSDN
Edit, from a comment from a deleted answer.
The context is always the current login unless EXECUTE AS as been used: only referenced object DML permissions are not checked. Try OBJECT_ID(referencedtable) in a stored proc where no rights are assigned to referencedtable. It gives NULL. If executed by the owner of the stored proc then it would give a value because owener has rights on referencedtable
Execute permissions on the stored procedure is sufficient.
CREATE TABLE dbo.Temp(n int)
GO
DENY INSERT ON dbo.Temp TO <your role>
GO
CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.SPTemp(#Int int)
AS
INSERT dbo.Temp
SELECT #Int
GO
GRANT EXEC ON dbo.SPTemp TO <your role>
GO
Then the (non-db_owner) user will have the following rights:
EXEC dbo.SPTemp 10
GO
INSERT dbo.Temp --INSERT permission was denied on the object 'Temp'
SELECT 10
However, if there is dynamic SQL inside dbo.SPTemp that attempts to insert into dbo.Temp then that will fail. In this case direct permission on the table will need to be granted.
Maybe you can use
"with execute as owner"
when you create the stored procedure, such as below:
create procedure XXX
with execute as owner
as
begin
...
end
go
Then you only need to grant the user the EXECUTE permission for the stored procedure XXX.
Execute permission on a stored procedure that does an insert, update, or delete is sufficient. You do not need to grant those permissions at the table level. In fact, I would discourage that approach. Using a stored procedure gives you more control over how the change occurs. For instance, you may wish to do some checking prior to allowing the update. Using a stored procedure can also help prevent major accidents--like deleting all the rows in the table because someone forgot the WHERE clause!
THANK YOU SO MUCH! I had a similar problem. This lead me to the answer.
I was attempting to trunctate a table in a stored procedure that called other stored procedures that were nested in IF statements.
My error was
The server principal "domain\my_id" is not able to access the database "2nd_DB" under the current security context.
I had given the calling stored procedure rights to do the truncate (EXECUTE AS SELF), which then caused a problem because SELF didn't have rights to the 2nd DB. Our solution was to move the truncate to another SP, include the EXECUTE AS SELF. We now call the truncate SP, execute our data processing, make logic determination, and call the appropriate 3rd SP.
I'd like to put the results of a stored proc into a temp table. It seems that the temp table must be defined beforehand and an INSERT INTO will not work.
Anyone know how to get the schema of the recordset being returned from a select statement?
sp_help only gets info on parameters.
You should be able to insert into a temp table without defining the schema using OPENQUERY:
SELECT * INTO #TempTable
FROM OPENQUERY(ServerName, ‘EXEC DataBaseName.dbo.StoredProcedureName paramvalues1, paramvalues1′)
Where ServerName is the name of your Sql Server instance. See this article for more info
Sometimes you just need to know the schema without creating a table. This command outputs the structure of the resultset without actually executing the stored procedure.
From rachmann on 16 April, 2015 from the Microsoft SQL Server forum article How to get schema of resultset returned by a stored procedure without using OPENQUERY?:
SELECT * FROM sys.dm_exec_describe_first_result_set ('owner.sprocName', NULL, 0) ;
Can you execute the logical content including INSERT INTO in a query window? That should generate a temp table that you can use as a model.
Worst case you build the schema by hand, once, which shouldn't be onerous if you are the one writing the SP.
For the benefit of future documentation, I like to hand-craft DDL in SPs anyway. It helps when debugging to have the schema explicitly at hand.
If you are able, change the stored procedure into a user-defined function.
http://www.scottstonehouse.ca/blog/2007/03/stored-procedures-are-not-parameterized.html