I found samples where the code:
SELECT * FROM [legacyserver].[database].[schema].[table]
was expressed as:
SELECT * FROM [legacyserver]...[table]
but isn't working for me.
It gives me the error:
An invalid schema or catalog was specified for the provider "MSDASQL" for linked server "legacyserver".
I'm using for legacy server SQL SERVER 2000 and for the new server SQL SERVER 2012.
I tried creating the linked server using:
EXEC sp_addlinkedserver
#server = 'legacyserver',
#srvproduct = '',
#provider = 'MSDASQL',
#provstr = 'DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=legacyserver;DATABASE=database;Trusted_Connection=Yes;',
and:
EXEC sp_addlinkedserver
#server = 'legacyserver',
#srvproduct = '',
#provider = 'MSDASQL',
#provstr = 'DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=legacyserver;Trusted_Connection=Yes;',
#catalog = 'database';
Is it possible to create the script without hard coding the database name?
I need to create a really big migration script and it need to use a development, acceptance and production databases, and it will be to much work and error prone to change it using replace in the text editor.
UPDATE:
The legacy development, acceptance and production databases are exactly the same (except for the data) and each one have it's own server/instance and database name.
Due to segregation of duties, I can't develop something and deploy it, so I have no way to touch this script after acceptance. I will need to instruct someone else to do so, and if he/she will need to replace every occurrence of [legacyserver].[database], the chances of mistakes are very high.
You can create a synonym
CREATE SYNONYM [table] FOR [legacyserver].[database].[schema].[table]
When you query
SELECT * FROM table
it's actually fetching data from linked server instead of local database.
If want to change database, just drop synonym and create a new one with new database name.
DROP SYNONYM table;
CREATE SYNONYM [table] FOR [legacyserver].[anotherdatabase].[schema].[table]
Your query statement is unchanged.
EDIT: DROP and CREATE SYNONYM statement is a little misleading. You don't need to do it yourself. It's one time job in deployment. Just create a Post-Deployment script that creates all synonyms and parametrize linked server name and database names. Code like:
IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.synonyms WHERE name = 'table1')
BEGIN
DROP SYNONYM table1
END
EXEC('CREATE SYNONYM table1 FOR ' + '$(LinkedServerName).$(DBName).[dbo].[Table1]')
Note, it use SQLCMD syntax.
Ask operations to change parameter in different environments.
I have restored two SQL Server 2005 dbs (DB1 & DB2) to a new box running SQL Server 2008 R2.
All objects are owned by dbo
I have a stored procedure DB1.dbo.mp_SPTest. I have given execute permissions to SQLUser1.
CREATE PROCEDURE mp_SPTest
AS
SELECT DB2.dbo.mf_UserHasAccess("BasicUser", "bob")
mp_SPTest calls a scalar function in DB2 DB2.dbo.mf_UserHasAccess(), this function checks if the username passed is a member of a SQL Role.....
CREATE FUNCTION [dbo].[mf_UserHasAccess] (#RoleName varchar(50), #UserName varchar(128))
RETURNS bit
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE #Result bit
SELECT #Result = 1
WHERE #RoleName IN (
SELECT CASE
WHEN (usg.uid is null) THEN 'public'
ELSE usg.name
END AS RoleName
FROM dbo.sysusers usu
LEFT OUTER JOIN (dbo.sysmembers mem
INNER JOIN dbo.sysusers usg
ON mem.groupuid = usg.uid)
ON usu.uid = mem.memberuid
LEFT OUTER JOIN master.dbo.syslogins lo
ON usu.sid = lo.sid
WHERE
(usu.islogin = 1 AND usu.isaliased = 0 AND usu.hasdbaccess = 1)
AND (usg.issqlrole = 1 OR usg.uid is NULL)
AND usu.name = #UserName)
IF #Result <> 1
BEGIN
SET #Result = 0
END
RETURN #Result
END
When I run this procedure as "SQLUser1" it tells me that bob is not a member of BasicUser but when I run it as "sa" it tells me that he IS a member.
As I understand it... because both procedure and function are owned by dbo then that is the context that the function in test2 db would run, therefore it should have access to the same user and login tables.
This worked fine on SQL Server 2005, cant figure it out.
Hope this makes sense, thanks in advance.
Most likely the old SQL Server 2005 had the cross db ownership chaining option turned on, while the new SQL Server 2008 R2 instance has the option left at its default value (off).
But your assumption that 'dbo' in DB1 equate to 'dbo' in DB2 is wrong. 'dbo' in DB1 is the login who corresponds to the owner_sid of DB1 in sys.databases. 'dbo' in DB2 is, likewise, the login that corrsponds to the onwer_sid in sys.databases for DB2. If the two logins are different (if the owner_sid of the two databases is different) then very likely 'dbo' of DB1 will map to some other user and the ownership chain is broken, even if enabled to cross databases. Running ALTER AUTHORIZATION ON DATABASE::[DB..] TO [sa] would fix this problem (ie. it would force the owner_sid to match).
And finally, what you're doing is fundamentally flawed, as it relies on activating ownership chaining across databases, which is a huge security hole, see Potential Threats. A much better avenue is to use code signing.
I solved this identical problem by making the schema the view or procedure is running under the owner of the schemas in the databases it needs to access.
USE [TargetDB]
ALTER AUTHORIZATION ON SCHEMA::[TargetSchema] TO [SourceSchema]
For example
USE [DB1]
ALTER AUTHORIZATION ON SCHEMA::[mem] TO [dbo]
GO
Would allow a view run as DB2.DBO.view assuming chaining is turned on, to access a table in DB1.mem.table. Essentially cross db chaining causes it to access the target DB AS the schema the view is under, not the user who owns the database.
I have three stored procedures Sp1, Sp2 and Sp3.
The first one (Sp1) will execute the second one (Sp2) and save returned data into #tempTB1 and the second one will execute the third one (Sp3) and save data into #tempTB2.
If I execute the Sp2 it will work and it will return me all my data from the Sp3, but the problem is in the Sp1, when I execute it it will display this error:
INSERT EXEC statement cannot be nested
I tried to change the place of execute Sp2 and it display me another error:
Cannot use the ROLLBACK statement
within an INSERT-EXEC statement.
This is a common issue when attempting to 'bubble' up data from a chain of stored procedures. A restriction in SQL Server is you can only have one INSERT-EXEC active at a time. I recommend looking at How to Share Data Between Stored Procedures which is a very thorough article on patterns to work around this type of problem.
For example a work around could be to turn Sp3 into a Table-valued function.
This is the only "simple" way to do this in SQL Server without some giant convoluted created function or executed sql string call, both of which are terrible solutions:
create a temp table
openrowset your stored procedure data into it
EXAMPLE:
INSERT INTO #YOUR_TEMP_TABLE
SELECT * FROM OPENROWSET ('SQLOLEDB','Server=(local);TRUSTED_CONNECTION=YES;','set fmtonly off EXEC [ServerName].dbo.[StoredProcedureName] 1,2,3')
Note: You MUST use 'set fmtonly off', AND you CANNOT add dynamic sql to this either inside the openrowset call, either for the string containing your stored procedure parameters or for the table name. Thats why you have to use a temp table rather than table variables, which would have been better, as it out performs temp table in most cases.
OK, encouraged by jimhark here is an example of the old single hash table approach: -
CREATE PROCEDURE SP3 as
BEGIN
SELECT 1, 'Data1'
UNION ALL
SELECT 2, 'Data2'
END
go
CREATE PROCEDURE SP2 as
BEGIN
if exists (select * from tempdb.dbo.sysobjects o where o.xtype in ('U') and o.id = object_id(N'tempdb..#tmp1'))
INSERT INTO #tmp1
EXEC SP3
else
EXEC SP3
END
go
CREATE PROCEDURE SP1 as
BEGIN
EXEC SP2
END
GO
/*
--I want some data back from SP3
-- Just run the SP1
EXEC SP1
*/
/*
--I want some data back from SP3 into a table to do something useful
--Try run this - get an error - can't nest Execs
if exists (select * from tempdb.dbo.sysobjects o where o.xtype in ('U') and o.id = object_id(N'tempdb..#tmp1'))
DROP TABLE #tmp1
CREATE TABLE #tmp1 (ID INT, Data VARCHAR(20))
INSERT INTO #tmp1
EXEC SP1
*/
/*
--I want some data back from SP3 into a table to do something useful
--However, if we run this single hash temp table it is in scope anyway so
--no need for the exec insert
if exists (select * from tempdb.dbo.sysobjects o where o.xtype in ('U') and o.id = object_id(N'tempdb..#tmp1'))
DROP TABLE #tmp1
CREATE TABLE #tmp1 (ID INT, Data VARCHAR(20))
EXEC SP1
SELECT * FROM #tmp1
*/
My work around for this problem has always been to use the principle that single hash temp tables are in scope to any called procs. So, I have an option switch in the proc parameters (default set to off). If this is switched on, the called proc will insert the results into the temp table created in the calling proc. I think in the past I have taken it a step further and put some code in the called proc to check if the single hash table exists in scope, if it does then insert the code, otherwise return the result set. Seems to work well - best way of passing large data sets between procs.
This trick works for me.
You don't have this problem on remote server, because on remote server, the last insert command waits for the result of previous command to execute. It's not the case on same server.
Profit that situation for a workaround.
If you have the right permission to create a Linked Server, do it.
Create the same server as linked server.
in SSMS, log into your server
go to "Server Object
Right Click on "Linked Servers", then "New Linked Server"
on the dialog, give any name of your linked server : eg: THISSERVER
server type is "Other data source"
Provider : Microsoft OLE DB Provider for SQL server
Data source: your IP, it can be also just a dot (.), because it's localhost
Go to the tab "Security" and choose the 3rd one "Be made using the login's current security context"
You can edit the server options (3rd tab) if you want
Press OK, your linked server is created
now your Sql command in the SP1 is
insert into #myTempTable
exec THISSERVER.MY_DATABASE_NAME.MY_SCHEMA.SP2
Believe me, it works even you have dynamic insert in SP2
I found a work around is to convert one of the prods into a table valued function. I realize that is not always possible, and introduces its own limitations. However, I have been able to always find at least one of the procedures a good candidate for this. I like this solution, because it doesn't introduce any "hacks" to the solution.
I encountered this issue when trying to import the results of a Stored Proc into a temp table, and that Stored Proc inserted into a temp table as part of its own operation. The issue being that SQL Server does not allow the same process to write to two different temp tables at the same time.
The accepted OPENROWSET answer works fine, but I needed to avoid using any Dynamic SQL or an external OLE provider in my process, so I went a different route.
One easy workaround I found was to change the temporary table in my stored procedure to a table variable. It works exactly the same as it did with a temp table, but no longer conflicts with my other temp table insert.
Just to head off the comment I know that a few of you are about to write, warning me off Table Variables as performance killers... All I can say to you is that in 2020 it pays dividends not to be afraid of Table Variables. If this was 2008 and my Database was hosted on a server with 16GB RAM and running off 5400RPM HDDs, I might agree with you. But it's 2020 and I have an SSD array as my primary storage and hundreds of gigs of RAM. I could load my entire company's database to a table variable and still have plenty of RAM to spare.
Table Variables are back on the menu!
I recommend to read this entire article. Below is the most relevant section of that article that addresses your question:
Rollback and Error Handling is Difficult
In my articles on Error and Transaction Handling in SQL Server, I suggest that you should always have an error handler like
BEGIN CATCH
IF ##trancount > 0 ROLLBACK TRANSACTION
EXEC error_handler_sp
RETURN 55555
END CATCH
The idea is that even if you do not start a transaction in the procedure, you should always include a ROLLBACK, because if you were not able to fulfil your contract, the transaction is not valid.
Unfortunately, this does not work well with INSERT-EXEC. If the called procedure executes a ROLLBACK statement, this happens:
Msg 3915, Level 16, State 0, Procedure SalesByStore, Line 9 Cannot use the ROLLBACK statement within an INSERT-EXEC statement.
The execution of the stored procedure is aborted. If there is no CATCH handler anywhere, the entire batch is aborted, and the transaction is rolled back. If the INSERT-EXEC is inside TRY-CATCH, that CATCH handler will fire, but the transaction is doomed, that is, you must roll it back. The net effect is that the rollback is achieved as requested, but the original error message that triggered the rollback is lost. That may seem like a small thing, but it makes troubleshooting much more difficult, because when you see this error, all you know is that something went wrong, but you don't know what.
I had the same issue and concern over duplicate code in two or more sprocs. I ended up adding an additional attribute for "mode". This allowed common code to exist inside one sproc and the mode directed flow and result set of the sproc.
what about just store the output to the static table ? Like
-- SubProcedure: subProcedureName
---------------------------------
-- Save the value
DELETE lastValue_subProcedureName
INSERT INTO lastValue_subProcedureName (Value)
SELECT #Value
-- Return the value
SELECT #Value
-- Procedure
--------------------------------------------
-- get last value of subProcedureName
SELECT Value FROM lastValue_subProcedureName
its not ideal, but its so simple and you don't need to rewrite everything.
UPDATE:
the previous solution does not work well with parallel queries (async and multiuser accessing) therefore now Iam using temp tables
-- A local temporary table created in a stored procedure is dropped automatically when the stored procedure is finished.
-- The table can be referenced by any nested stored procedures executed by the stored procedure that created the table.
-- The table cannot be referenced by the process that called the stored procedure that created the table.
IF OBJECT_ID('tempdb..#lastValue_spGetData') IS NULL
CREATE TABLE #lastValue_spGetData (Value INT)
-- trigger stored procedure with special silent parameter
EXEC dbo.spGetData 1 --silent mode parameter
nested spGetData stored procedure content
-- Save the output if temporary table exists.
IF OBJECT_ID('tempdb..#lastValue_spGetData') IS NOT NULL
BEGIN
DELETE #lastValue_spGetData
INSERT INTO #lastValue_spGetData(Value)
SELECT Col1 FROM dbo.Table1
END
-- stored procedure return
IF #silentMode = 0
SELECT Col1 FROM dbo.Table1
Declare an output cursor variable to the inner sp :
#c CURSOR VARYING OUTPUT
Then declare a cursor c to the select you want to return.
Then open the cursor.
Then set the reference:
DECLARE c CURSOR LOCAL FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR
SELECT ...
OPEN c
SET #c = c
DO NOT close or reallocate.
Now call the inner sp from the outer one supplying a cursor parameter like:
exec sp_abc a,b,c,, #cOUT OUTPUT
Once the inner sp executes, your #cOUT is ready to fetch. Loop and then close and deallocate.
If you are able to use other associated technologies such as C#, I suggest using the built in SQL command with Transaction parameter.
var sqlCommand = new SqlCommand(commandText, null, transaction);
I've created a simple Console App that demonstrates this ability which can be found here:
https://github.com/hecked12/SQL-Transaction-Using-C-Sharp
In short, C# allows you to overcome this limitation where you can inspect the output of each stored procedure and use that output however you like, for example you can feed it to another stored procedure. If the output is ok, you can commit the transaction, otherwise, you can revert the changes using rollback.
On SQL Server 2008 R2, I had a mismatch in table columns that caused the Rollback error. It went away when I fixed my sqlcmd table variable populated by the insert-exec statement to match that returned by the stored proc. It was missing org_code. In a windows cmd file, it loads result of stored procedure and selects it.
set SQLTXT= declare #resets as table (org_id nvarchar(9), org_code char(4), ^
tin(char9), old_strt_dt char(10), strt_dt char(10)); ^
insert #resets exec rsp_reset; ^
select * from #resets;
sqlcmd -U user -P pass -d database -S server -Q "%SQLTXT%" -o "OrgReport.txt"
In SQL Server 2008, I want to move ALL non-clustered indexes in a DB to a secondary filegroup. What's the easiest way to do this?
Run this updated script to create a stored procedure called MoveIndexToFileGroup. This procedure moves all the non-clustered indexes on a table to a specified file group. It even supports the INCLUDE columns that some other scripts do not. In addition, it will not rebuild or move an index that is already on the desired file group. Once you've created the procedure, call it like this:
EXEC MoveIndexToFileGroup #DBName = '<your database name>',
#SchemaName = '<schema name that defaults to dbo>',
#ObjectNameList = '<a table or list of tables>',
#IndexName = '<an index or NULL for all of them>',
#FileGroupName = '<the target file group>';
To create a script that will run this for each table in your database, switch your query output to text, and run this:
SELECT 'EXEC MoveIndexToFileGroup '''
+TABLE_CATALOG+''','''
+TABLE_SCHEMA+''','''
+TABLE_NAME+''',NULL,''the target file group'';'
+char(13)+char(10)
+'GO'+char(13)+char(10)
FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES
WHERE TABLE_TYPE = 'BASE TABLE'
ORDER BY TABLE_SCHEMA, TABLE_NAME;
Please refer to the original blog for more details. I did not write this procedure, but updated it according to the blog's responses and confirmed it works on both SQL Server 2005 and 2008.
Updates
#psteffek modified the script to work on SQL Server 2012. I merged his changes.
The procedure fails when your table has the IGNORE_DUP_KEY option on. No fix for this yet.
#srutzky pointed out the procedure does not guarantee to preserve the order of an index and made suggestions on how to fix it. I updated the procedure accordingly.
ojiNY noted the procedure left out index filters (for compatibility with SQL 2005). Per his suggestion, I added them back in.
Script them, change the ON clause, drop them, re-run the new script. There is no alternative really.
Luckily, there are scripts on the Interwebs such as this one that will deal with scripting for you.
Update: This thing will take long time to do step 2 manually if you are using MS SQL Server manager 2008R2 or earlier. I used sql server manager 2014, so it works well (because the way it export the drop and create index is easy to modify)
I tried to run script in SQL server 2014 and got some issue, I'm too lazy to detect the problems, SO I come up with another solution that not depend on the version of SQL server you are running.
Export your index (with drop and create)
2.Update your script, remove all things related to drop create tables, keep the thing belong to indexs. and Replace your original index with the new index (in my case, I replace ON [PRIMARY] by ON [SECONDARY]
[]5
Run script! And wait until it done.
(You may want to save the script to run in some others environment).
How do I set the database name dynamically in a SQL Server stored procedure?
Sometimes, the use of SYNONYMs is a good strategy:
CREATE SYNONYM [schema.]name FOR [[[linkedserver.]database.]schema.]name
Then, refer to the object by its synonym in your stored procedure.
Altering where the synonym points IS a matter of dynamic SQL, but then your main stored procedures can be totally dynamic SQL-free. Create a table to manage all the objects you need to reference, and a stored procedure that switches all the desired synonyms to the right context.
This functionality is only available in SQL Server 2005 and up.
This method will NOT be suitable for frequent switching or for situations where different connections need to use different databases. I use it for a database that occasionally moves around between servers (it can run in the prod database or on the replication database and they have different names). After restoring the database to its new home, I run my switcheroo SP on it and everything is working in about 8 seconds.
Stored Procedures are database specific. If you want to access data from another database dynamically, you are going to have to create dynamic SQL and execute it.
Declare #strSQL VarChar (MAX)
Declare #DatabaseNameParameter VarChar (100) = 'MyOtherDB'
SET #strSQL = 'SELECT * FROM ' + #DatabaseNameParameter + '.Schema.TableName'
You can use if clauses to set the #DatabaseNameParameter to the DB of your liking.
Execute the statement to get your results.
This is not dynamic SQL and works for stored procs
Declare #ThreePartName varchar (1000)
Declare #DatabaseNameParameter varchar (100)
SET #DatabaseNameParameter = 'MyOtherDB'
SET #ThreePartName = #DatabaseNameParameter + '.Schema.MyOtherSP'
EXEC #ThreePartName #p1, #p2... --Look! No brackets