Given an array A consisting of N elements. Our task is to find the maximal subarray sum after applying the following operation exactly once:
. Select any subarray and set all the elements in it to zero.
Eg:- array is -1 4 -1 2 then answer is 6 because we can choose -1 at index 2 as a subarray and make it 0. So the resultatnt array will be after applying the operation is : -1 4 0 2. Max sum subarray is 4+0+2 = 6.
My approach was to find start and end indexes of minimum sum subarray and make all elements as 0 of that subarray and after that find maximum sum subarray. But this approach is wrong.
Starting simple:
First, let us start with the part of the question: Finding the maximal subarray sum.
This can be done via dynamic programming:
a = [1, 2, 3, -2, 1, -6, 3, 2, -4, 1, 2, 3]
a = [-1, -1, 1, 2, 3, 4, -6, 1, 2, 3, 4]
def compute_max_sums(a):
res = []
currentSum = 0
for x in a:
if currentSum > 0:
res.append(x + currentSum)
currentSum += x
else:
res.append(x)
currentSum = x
return res
res = compute_max_sums(a)
print(res)
print(max(res))
Quick explanation: we iterate through the array. As long as the sum is non-negative, it is worth appending the whole block to the next number. If we dip below zero at any point, we discard whole "tail" sequence since it will not be profitable to keep it anymore and we start anew. At the end, we have an array, where j-th element is the maximal sum of a subarray i:j where 0 <= i <= j.
Rest is just the question of finding the maximal value in the array.
Back to the original question
Now that we solved the simplified version, it is time to look further. We can now select a subarray to be deleted to increase the maximal sum. The naive solution would be to try every possible subarray and to repeat the steps above. This would unfortunately take too long1. Fortunately, there is a way around this: we can think of the zeroes as a bridge between two maxima.
There is one more thing to address though - currently, when we have the j-th element, we only know that the tail is somewhere behind it so if we were to take maximum and 2nd biggest element from the array, it could happen that they would overlap which would be a problem since we would be counting some of the elements more than once.
Overlapping tails
How to mitigate this "overlapping tails" issue?
The solution is to compute everything once more, this time from the end to start. This gives us two arrays - one where j-th element has its tail i pointing towards the left end of the array(e.g. i <=j) and the other where the reverse is true. Now, if we take x from first array and y from second array we know that if index(x) < index(y) then their respective subarrays are non-overlapping.
We can now proceed to try every suitable x, y pair - there is O(n2) of them. However since we don't need any further computation as we already precomputed the values, this is the final complexity of the algorithm since the preparation cost us only O(n) and thus it doesn't impose any additional penalty.
Here be dragons
So far the stuff we did was rather straightforward. This following section is not that complex but there are going to be some moving parts. Time to brush up the max heaps:
Accessing the max is in constant time
Deleting any element is O(log(n)) if we have a reference to that element. (We can't find the element in O(log(n)). However if we know where it is, we can swap it with the last element of the heap, delete it, and bubble down the swapped element in O(log(n)).
Adding any element into the heap is O(log(n)) as well.
Building a heap can be done in O(n)
That being said, since we need to go from start to the end, we can build two heaps, one for each of our pre-computed arrays.
We will also need a helper array that will give us quick index -> element-in-heap access to get the delete in log(n).
The first heap will start empty - we are at the start of the array, the second one will start full - we have the whole array ready.
Now we can iterate over whole array. In each step i we:
Compare the max(heap1) + max(heap2) with our current best result to get the current maximum. O(1)
Add the i-th element from the first array into the first heap - O(log(n))
Remove the i-th indexed element from the second heap(this is why we have to keep the references in a helper array) - O(log(n))
The resulting complexity is O(n * log(n)).
Update:
Just a quick illustration of the O(n2) solution since OP nicely and politely asked. Man oh man, I'm not your bro.
Note 1: Getting the solution won't help you as much as figuring out the solution on your own.
Note 2: The fact that the following code gives the correct answer is not a proof of its correctness. While I'm fairly certain that my solution should work it is definitely worth looking into why it works(if it works) than looking at one example of it working.
input = [100, -50, -500, 2, 8, 13, -160, 5, -7, 100]
reverse_input = [x for x in reversed(input)]
max_sums = compute_max_sums(input)
rev_max_sums = [x for x in reversed(compute_max_sums(reverse_input))]
print(max_sums)
print(rev_max_sums)
current_max = 0
for i in range(len(max_sums)):
if i < len(max_sums) - 1:
for j in range(i + 1, len(rev_max_sums)):
if max_sums[i] + rev_max_sums[j] > current_max:
current_max = max_sums[i] + rev_max_sums[j]
print(current_max)
1 There are n possible beginnings, n possible ends and the complexity of the code we have is O(n) resulting in a complexity of O(n3). Not the end of the world, however it's not nice either.
Related
For example, given an array
a = [1, 2, 3, 7, 8, 9]
and an integer
i = 2. Find maximal subarrays where the distance between the largest and the smallest elements is at most i. The output for the example above would be:
[1,2,3] [7,8,9]
The subarrays are maximal in the sense given two subarrays A and B. There exists no element b in B such that A + b satisfies the condition given. Does there exist a non-polynomial time algorithm for said problem ?
This problem might be solved in linear time using method of two pointers and two deques storing indices, the first deque keeps minimum, another keeps maximum in sliding window.
Deque for minimum (similar for maximum):
current_minimum = a[minq.front]
Adding i-th element of array: //at the right index
while (!minq.empty and a[minq.back] > a[i]):
//last element has no chance to become a minimum because newer one is better
minq.pop_back
minq.push_back(i)
Extracting j-th element: //at the left index
if (!minq.empty and minq.front == j)
minq.pop_front
So min-deque always contains non-decreasing sequence.
Now set left and right indices in 0, insert index 0 into deques, and start to move right. At every step add index in order into deques, and check than left..right interval range is good. When range becomes too wide (min-max distance is exceeded), stop moving right index, check length of the last good interval, compare with the best length.
Now move left index, removing elements from deques. When max-min becomes good, stop left and start with right again. Repeat until array end.
I have to interleave a given array of the form
{a1,a2,....,an,b1,b2,...,bn}
as
{a1,b1,a2,b2,a3,b3}
in O(n) time and O(1) space.
Example:
Input - {1,2,3,4,5,6}
Output- {1,4,2,5,3,6}
This is the arrangement of elements by indices:
Initial Index Final Index
0 0
1 2
2 4
3 1
4 3
5 5
By observation after taking some examples, I found that ai (i<n/2) goes from index (i) to index (2i) & bi (i>=n/2) goes from index (i) to index (((i-n/2)*2)+1). You can verify this yourselves. Correct me if I am wrong.
However, I am not able to correctly apply this logic in code.
My pseudo code:
for (i = 0 ; i < n ; i++)
if(i < n/2)
swap(arr[i],arr[2*i]);
else
swap(arr[i],arr[((i-n/2)*2)+1]);
It's not working.
How can I write an algorithm to solve this problem?
Element bn is in the correct position already, so lets forget about it and only worry about the other N = 2n-1 elements. Notice that N is always odd.
Now the problem can be restated as "move the element at each position i to position 2i % N"
The item at position 0 doesn't move, so lets start at position 1.
If you start at position 1 and move it to position 2%N, you have to remember the item at position 2%N before you replace it. The the one from position 2%N goes to position 4%N, the one from 4%N goes to 8%N, etc., until you get back to position 1, where you can put the remaining item into the slot you left.
You are guaranteed to return to slot 1, because N is odd and multiplying by 2 mod an odd number is invertible. You are not guaranteed to cover all positions before you get back, though. The whole permutation will break into some number of cycles.
If you can start this process at one element from each cycle, then you will do the whole job. The trouble is figuring out which ones are done and which ones aren't, so you don't cover any cycle twice.
I don't think you can do this for arbitrary N in a way that meets your time and space constraints... BUT if N = 2x-1 for some x, then this problem is much easier, because each cycle includes exactly the cyclic shifts of some bit pattern. You can generate single representatives for each cycle (called cycle leaders) in constant time per index. (I'll describe the procedure in an appendix at the end)
Now we have the basis for a recursive algorithm that meets your constraints.
Given [a1...an,b1...bn]:
Find the largest x such that 2x <= 2n
Rotate the middle elements to create [a1...ax,b1...bx,ax+1...an,bx+1...bn]
Interleave the first part of the array in linear time using the above-described procedure, since it will have modulus 2x-1
Recurse to interleave the last part of the array.
Since the last part of the array we recurse on is guaranteed to be at most half the size of the original, we have this recurrence for the time complexity:
T(N) = O(N) + T(N/2)
= O(N)
And note that the recursion is a tail call, so you can do this in constant space.
Appendix: Generating cycle leaders for shifts mod 2x-1
A simple algorithm for doing this is given in a paper called "An algorithm for generating necklaces of beads in 2 colors" by Fredricksen and Kessler. You can get a PDF here: https://core.ac.uk/download/pdf/82148295.pdf
The implementation is easy. Start with x 0s, and repeatedly:
Set the lowest order 0 bit to 1. Let this be bit y
Copy the lower order bits starting from the top
The result is a cycle leader if x-y divides x
Repeat until you have all x 1s
For example, if x=8 and we're at 10011111, the lowest 0 is bit 5. We switch it to 1 and then copy the remainder from the top to give 10110110. 8-5=3, though, and 3 does not divide 8, so this one is not a cycle leader and we continue to the next.
The algorithm I'm going to propose is probably not o(n).
It's not based on swapping elements but on moving elements which probably could be O(1) if you have a list and not an array.
Given 2N elements, at each iteration (i) you take the element in position N/2 + i and move it to position 2*i
a1,a2,a3,...,an,b1,b2,b3,...,bn
| |
a1,b1,a2,a3,...,an,b2,b3,...,bn
| |
a1,b1,a2,b2,a3,...,an,b3,...,bn
| |
a1,b1,a2,b2,a3,b3,...,an,...,bn
and so on.
example with N = 4
1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8
1,5,2,3,4,6,7,8
1,5,2,6,3,4,7,8
1,5,2,6,3,7,4,8
One idea which is a little complex is supposing each location has the following value:
1, 3, 5, ..., 2n-1 | 2, 4, 6, ..., 2n
a1,a2, ..., an | b1, b2, ..., bn
Then using inline merging of two sorted arrays as explained in this article in O(n) time an O(1) space complexity. However, we need to manage this indexing during the process.
There is a practical linear time* in-place algorithm described in this question. Pseudocode and C code are included.
It involves swapping the first 1/2 of the items into the correct place, then unscrambling the permutation of the 1/4 of the items that got moved, then repeating for the remaining 1/2 array.
Unscrambling the permutation uses the fact that left items move into the right side with an alternating "add to end, swap oldest" pattern. We can find the i'th index in this permutation with this this rule:
For even i, the end was at i/2.
For odd i, the oldest was added to the end at step (i-1)/2
*The number of data moves is definitely O(N). The question asks for the time complexity of the unscramble index calculation. I believe it is no worse than O(lg lg N).
We have an array as input to production.
R = [5, 2, 8, 3, 6, 9]
If ith input is chosen the output is sum of ith element, the max element whose index is less than i and the min element whose index is greater than i.
For example if I take 8, output would be 8+5+3=16.
Selected items cannot be selected again. So, if I select 8 the next array for next selection would look like R = [5, 2, 3, 6, 9]
What is the order to choose all inputs with maximum output in total? If possible, please send dynamic programming solutions.
I'll start the bidding with an O(n2n) solution . . .
There are a number of ambiguities in your description of the problem, that you have declined to address in comments. None of these ambiguities affects the runtime complexity of this solution, but they do affect implementation details of the solution, so the solution is necessarily somewhat of a sketch.
The solution is as follows:
Create an array results of 2n integers. Each array index i will denote a certain subsequence of the input, and results[i] will be the greatest sum that we can achieve starting with that subsequence.
A convenient way to manage the index-to-subsequence mapping is to represent the first element of the input using the least significant bit (the 1's place), the second element with the 2's place, etc.; so, for example, if our input is [5, 2, 8, 3, 6, 9], then the subsequence 5 2 8 would be represented as array index 0001112 = 7, meaning results[7]. (You can also start with the most significant bit ā which is probably more intuitive ā but then the implementation of that mapping is a little bit less convenient. Up to you.)
Then proceed in order, from subset #0 (the empty subset) up through subset #2nā1 (the full input), calculating each array-element by seeing how much we get if we select each possible element and add the corresponding previously-stored values. So, for example, to calculate results[7] (for the subsequence 5 2 8), we select the largest of these values:
results[6] plus how much we get if we select the 5
results[5] plus how much we get if we select the 2
results[3] plus how much we get if we select the 8
Now, it might seem like it should require O(n2) time to compute any given array-element, since there are n elements in the input that we could potentially select, and seeing how much we get if we do so requires examining all other elements (to find the maximum among prior elements and the minimum among later elements). However, we can actually do it in just O(n) time by first making a pass from right to left to record the minimal value that is later than each element of the input, and then proceeding from left to right to try each possible value. (Two O(n) passes add up to O(n).)
An important caveat: I suspect that the correct solution only ever involves, at each step, selecting either the rightmost or second-to-rightmost element. If so, then the above solution calculates many, many more values than an algorithm that took that into account. For example, the result at index 1110002 is clearly not relevant in that case. But I can't prove this suspicion, so I present the above O(n2n) solution as the fastest solution whose correctness I'm certain of.
(I'm assuming that the elements are nonnegative absent a suggestion to the contrary.)
Here's an O(n^2)-time algorithm based on ruakh's conjecture that there exists an optimal solution where every selection is from the rightmost two, which I prove below.
The states of the DP are (1) n, the number of elements remaining (2) k, the index of the rightmost element. We have a recurrence
OPT(n, k) = max(max(R(0), ..., R(n - 2)) + R(n - 1) + R(k) + OPT(n - 1, k),
max(R(0), ..., R(n - 1)) + R(k) + OPT(n - 1, n - 1)),
where the first line is when we take the second rightmost element, and the second line is when we take the rightmost. The empty max is zero. The base cases are
OPT(1, k) = R(k)
for all k.
Proof: the condition of choosing from the two rightmost elements is equivalent to the restriction that the element at index i (counting from zero) can be chosen only when at most i + 2 elements remain. We show by induction that there exists an optimal solution satisfying this condition for all i < j where j is the induction variable.
The base case is trivial, since every optimal solution satisfies the vacuous restriction for j = 0. In the inductive case, assume that there exists an optimal solution satisfying the restriction for all i < j. If j is chosen when there are more than j + 2 elements left, let's consider what happens if we defer that choice until there are exactly j + 2 elements left. None of the elements left of j are chosen in this interval by the inductive hypothesis, so they are irrelevant. Choosing the elements right of j can only be at least as profitable, since including j cannot decrease the max. Meanwhile, the set of elements left of j is the same at both times, and the set of the elements right of j is a subset at the later time as compared to the earlier time, so the min does not decrease. We conclude that this deferral does not affect the profitability of the solution.
Description
Given an Array of size (n*k+b) where n elements occur k times and one element occurs b times, in other words there are n+1 distinct Elements. Given that 0 < b < k find the element occurring b times.
My Attempted solutions
Obvious solution will be using hashing but it will not work if the numbers are very large. Complexity is O(n)
Using map to store the frequencies of each element and then traversing map to find the element occurring b times.As Map's are implemented as height balanced trees Complexity will be O(nlogn).
Both of my solution were accepted but the interviewer wanted a linear solution without using hashing and hint he gave was make the height of tree constant in tree in which you are storing frequencies, but I am not able to figure out the correct solution yet.
I want to know how to solve this problem in linear time without hashing?
EDIT:
Sample:
Input: n=2 b=2 k=3
Aarray: 2 2 2 3 3 3 1 1
Output: 1
I assume:
The elements of the array are comparable.
We know the values of n and k beforehand.
A solution O(n*k+b) is good enough.
Let the number occuring only b times be S. We are trying to find the S in an array of n*k+b size.
Recursive Step: Find the median element of the current array slice as in Quick Sort in lineer time. Let the median element be M.
After the recursive step you have an array where all elements smaller than M occur on the left of the first occurence of M. All M elements are next to each other and all element larger than M are on the right of all occurences of M.
Look at the index of the leftmost M and calculate whether S<M or S>=M. Recurse either on the left slice or the right slice.
So you are doing a quick sort but delving only one part of the divisions at any time. You will recurse O(logN) times but each time with 1/2, 1/4, 1/8, .. sizes of the original array, so the total time will still be O(n).
Clarification: Let's say n=20 and k = 10. Then, there are 21 distinct elements in the array, 20 of which occur 10 times and the last occur let's say 7 times. I find the medium element, let's say it is 1111. If the S<1111 than the index of the leftmost occurence of 1111 will be less than 11*10. If S>=1111 then the index will be equal to 11*10.
Full example: n = 4. k = 3. Array = {1,2,3,4,5,1,2,3,4,5,1,2,3,5}
After the first recursive step I find the median element is 3 and the array is something like: {1,2,1,2,1,2,3,3,3,5,4,5,5,4} There are 6 elements on the left of 3. 6 is a multiple of k=3. So each element must be occuring 3 times there. So S>=3. Recurse on the right side. And so on.
An idea using cyclic groups.
To guess i-th bit of answer, follow this procedure:
Count how many numbers in array has i-th bit set, store as cnt
If cnt % k is non-zero, then i-th bit of answer is set. Otherwise it is clear.
To guess whole number, repeat the above for every bit.
This solution is technically O((n*k+b)*log max N), where max N is maximal value in the table, but because number of bits is usually constant, this solution is linear in array size.
No hashing, memory usage is O(log k * log max N).
Example implementation:
from random import randint, shuffle
def generate_test_data(n, k, b):
k_rep = [randint(0, 1000) for i in xrange(n)]
b_rep = [randint(0, 1000)]
numbers = k_rep*k + b_rep*b
shuffle(numbers)
print "k_rep: ", k_rep
print "b_rep: ", b_rep
return numbers
def solve(data, k):
cnts = [0]*10
for number in data:
bits = [number >> b & 1 for b in xrange(10)]
cnts = [cnts[i] + bits[i] for i in xrange(10)]
return reduce(lambda a,b:2*a+(b%k>0), reversed(cnts), 0)
print "Answer: ", solve(generate_test_data(10, 15, 13), 3)
In order to have a constant height B-tree containing n distinct elements, with height h constant, you need z=n^(1/h) children per nodes: h=log_z(n), thus h=log(n)/log(z), thus log(z)=log(n)/h, thus z=e^(log(n)/h), thus z=n^(1/h).
Example, with n=1000000, h=10, z=3.98, that is z=4.
The time to reach a node in that case is O(h.log(z)). Assuming h and z to be "constant" (since N=n.k, then log(z)=log(n^(1/h))=log(N/k^(1/h))=ct by properly choosing h based on k, you can then say that O(h.log(z))=O(1)... This is a bit far-fetched, but maybe that was the kind of thing the interviewer wanted to hear?
UPDATE: this one use hashing, so it's not a good answer :(
in python this would be linear time (set will remove the duplicates):
result = (sum(set(arr))*k - sum(arr)) / (k - b)
If 'k' is even and 'b' is odd, then XOR will do. :)
Could somebody explain why the average number of steps for finding an item in an unsorted array data-structure is N/2?
This really depends what you know about the numbers in the array. If they're all drawn from a distribution where all the probability mass is on a single value, then on expectation it will take you exactly 1 step to find the value you're looking for, since every value is the same, for example.
Let's now make a pretty strong assumption, that the array is filled with a random permutation of distinct values. You can think of this as picking some arbitrary sorted list of distinct elements and then randomly permuting it. In this case, suppose you're searching for some element in the array that actually exists (this proof breaks down if the element is not present). Then the number of steps you need to take is given by X, where X is the position of the element in the array. The average number of steps is then E[X], which is given by
E[X] = 1 Pr[X = 1] + 2 Pr[X = 2] + ... + n Pr[X = n]
Since we're assuming all the elements are drawn from a random permutation,
Pr[X = 1] = Pr[X = 2] = ... = Pr[X = n] = 1/n
So this expression is given by
E[X] = sum (i = 1 to n) i / n = (1 / n) sum (i = 1 to n) i = (1 / n) (n)(n + 1) / 2
= (n + 1) / 2
Which, I think, is the answer you're looking for.
The question as stated is just wrong. Linear search may perform better.
Perhaps a simpler example that shows why the average is N/2 is this:
Assume you have an unsorted array of 10 items: [5, 0, 9, 8, 1, 2, 7, 3, 4, 6]. This is all the digits [0..9].
Since the array is unsorted (i.e. you know nothing about the order of the items), the only way you can find a particular item in the array is by doing a linear search: start at the first item and go until you find what you're looking for, or you reach the end.
So let's count how many operations it takes to find each item. Finding the first item (5) takes only one operation. Finding the second item (0) takes two. Finding the last item (6) takes 10 operations. The total number of operations required to find all 10 items is 1+2+3+4+5+6+7+8+9+10, or 55. The average is 55/10, or 5.5.
The "linear search takes, on average, N/2 steps" conventional wisdom makes a number of assumptions. The two biggest are:
The item you're looking for is in the array. If an item isn't in the array, then it takes N steps to determine that. So if you're often looking for items that aren't there, then your average number of steps per search is going to be much higher than N/2.
On average, each item is searched for approximately as often as any other item. That is, you search for "6" as often as you search for "0", etc. If some items are looked up significantly more often than others, then the average number of steps per search is going to be skewed in favor of the items that are searched for more frequently. The number will be higher or lower than N/2, depending on the positions of the most frequently looked-up items.
While I think templatetypedef has the most instructive answer, in this case there is a much simpler one.
Consider permutations of the set {x1, x2, ..., xn} where n = 2m. Now take some element xi you wish to locate. For each permutation where xi occurs at index m - k, there is a corresponding mirror image permutation where xi occurs at index m + k. The mean of these possible indices is just [(m - k) + (m + k)]/2 = m = n/2. Therefore the mean of all all possible permutations of the set is n/2.
Consider a simple reformulation of the question:
What would be the limit of
lim (i->inf) of (sum(from 1 to i of random(n)) /i)
Or in C:
int sum = 0, i;
for (i = 0; i < LARGE_NUM; i++) sum += random(n);
sum /= LARGE_NUM;
If we assume that our random have even distribution of values (each value from 1 to n is equally likely to be produced), then the expected result would be (1+n)/2.