I'm looking to replace connection strings across multiple stored procedures.The development database I'm working with is restored from production and stored procedures within contain connection strings to a production linked server. My aim is replace the linked server connection strings to point at a development linked server for testing purposes. I'm looking to automated this as a step in the SQL Agent restore job to run immediately after the restore.
The issue I'm having is setting the stored proc definition as a variable while keeping the formatting. When selecting the definition text, the stored proc is all on one line so after replacing the CREATE for ALTER along with the connection stings I cannot execute the SQL due to the formatting. I've tried playing around with STRING_SPLIT as but to no avail. Is there a way to do this or is it not possible?
Here is an example of part of one of the procedures
SELECT
a.AgreementNumber,
a.AgreementProposalID,
c.CustomerNumber,
pc.Id CustomerID,
a.AgreementCreateDate
INTO
#a
FROM
SENTINEL.DotDot_S3DB01_Replica.dbo.AgreementTable a
INNER JOIN
SENTINEL.DotDot_S3CUSTDB_Replica.dbo.CustomerTable c ON a.AgreementCustomerNumber = c.CustomerNumber
INNER JOIN
SENTINEL.DotDot_Proposal_Replica.dbo.Customer pc ON pc.Code = c.CustomerNumber
WHERE
a.AgreementCreateDate > #LastEnteredDate;
After my changes it needs to look like this to reference the test database names
SELECT
a.AgreementNumber,
a.AgreementProposalID,
c.CustomerNumber,
pc.Id CustomerID,
a.AgreementCreateDate
INTO
#a
FROM
SENTINEL.DotDotUAT_S3DB01.dbo.AgreementTable a
INNER JOIN
SENTINEL.DotDotUAT_S3CUSTDB.dbo.CustomerTable c ON a.AgreementCustomerNumber = c.CustomerNumber
INNER JOIN
SENTINEL.DotDotUAT_Proposal .dbo.Customer pc ON pc.Code = c.CustomerNumber
WHERE
a.AgreementCreateDate > #LastEnteredDate;
I've tried using this code to select the stored procedure code as a variable so I can execute the alter procedure command with the changes however the object definition selected from sys.procedures is displayed all on one line.
DECLARE #SQL VARCHAR(MAX)
SET #SQL = ( SELECT OBJECT_DEFINITION(object_id)
FROM sys.procedures
WHERE name = 'Usp_Proc')
SET #SQL = REPLACE(REPLACE(REPLACE(REPLACE(REPLACE(#SQL,'CREATE','ALTER'),'OriginalString','ReplacementString'),'OriginalString','ReplacementString'),'OriginalString','ReplacementString'),'OriginalString','ReplacementString')
EXEC (#SQL)
I've got a database that is replicated on two servers, a live server and a test server, so that whenever it's needed the 'test' database gets overwritten by the 'live' database (so that I can reset everything if I've made a mess.)
I want an Stored Procedure in the 'test' database, that will only run in the 'test' database, but to do this I need to have it in the 'live' database as well, so that it can be copied over when 'test' is overwritten.
The procedure starts:
if ##SERVERNAME<>'TEST'
begin
raiserror ('NOT ON TEST! This SP must only be run on TEST.',16,1)
return
end
So that if it runs in live, it immediately exits.
Unfortunately the "Live" database server uses an older version of SQL, and doesn't seem to understand the lead/lag/over statements in the script, and refuses to create the procedure because of these "Incorrect syntax" errors.
The SP definitely works in the test server.
Is there a way to disregard the error messages when creating a stored procedure?
I've found a prior question that explained how to make a stored procedure with the same name, but I need the stored procedure to contain the script that the server thinks is incorrect.
The only way to not get the stored-procedure validated when created, is to run a dynamic-sql query within.
Example:
CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.YourStoredProcedure AS
BEGIN
IF ##SERVERNAME<>'TEST'
BEGIN
RAISERROR ('NOT ON TEST! This SP must only be run on TEST.',16,1)
RETURN
END
DECLARE #SQL NVARCHAR = N'
SELECT rowOne
, rowTwo
, valueOne
, LEAD(valueOne) OVER (PARTITION BY rowOne ORDER BY rowTwo DESC) AS preValue
FROM dbo.YourTable
'
EXEC(#SQL)
END
Notes:
On the long term, try to find a better strategy than DB replication for different systems. Check Continuous Deployment
Make sure to check concatenated dynamic-sql for potential issues (sql injection). Check QUOTENAME()
I am trying to set up a query that will grab the Windows version of each SQL Server I have and throw it into a table. I have the query that grabs the version but I think there is a better way to get the information needed than connecting to each indiviual server one by one to run the query. I am not opposed to using XP_cmdshell I am just wondering if there is a way to run one query that will grab the version of each Windows OS I have on the sql servers. Also I do have a list of servers to use.
EDIT: I know I wil have to in some way touch each server. I would just like a way to get around having the RDP to each server and open SQL server and query it or haveing to connect to each server within sql server and running the query one by one.
All I have right now code wise is a simple INSERT STATEMENT I get here and I draw a blank on where to go next of even hoe to tackle the problem. The table below has two columns ServerName and Win_Ver ServerName is already populated with all the servers I have.
INSERT INTO mtTable
(Win_Ver)
SELECT ##Version
Given that:
there are "roughly 112 servers"
the servers being a "mixture between 2008 - 2012"
"There is table we are keeping with all of our DB server Statistics."
and "We periodically get asked to produce these statistics"
one option is to cycle through that table of servers using a cursor, and for each one, execute xp_cmdshell to call SQLCMD to run the query. You would use a table variable to capture the result set from SQLCMD as returned by xp_cmdshell. Something like:
DECLARE #ServerName sysname,
#Command NVARCHAR(4000),
#CommandTemplate NVARCHAR(4000);
DECLARE #Results TABLE ([ResultID] INT IDENTITY(1, 1) NOT NULL, [Result] NVARCHAR(4000));
SET #CommandTemplate = N'SQLCMD -S {{SERVER_NAME}} -E -h-1 -Q "PRINT ##VERSION;"';
DECLARE srvrs CURSOR LOCAL READ_ONLY FAST_FORWARD
FOR SELECT [ServerName]
FROM ServerStats;
OPEN srvrs;
FETCH NEXT
FROM srvrs
INTO #ServerName;
WHILE (##FETCH_STATUS = 0)
BEGIN
SET #Command = REPLACE(#CommandTemplate, N'{{SERVER_NAME}}', #ServerName);
INSERT INTO #Results ([Result])
EXEC xp_cmdshell #Command;
-- Get results via SELECT [Result] FROM #Results ORDER BY [ResultID];
-- Do something with the data in #Results
DELETE FROM #Results;
FETCH NEXT
FROM srvrs
INTO #ServerName;
END;
CLOSE srvrs;
DEALLOCATE srvrs;
And it wouldn't hurt to throw in a TRY / CATCH in there :-).
Even if not the most ideal of solutions, it is at least doesn't require adding 112 Linked Servers, and is dynamic and will adjust to servers being added and removed.
In SQL Server you are able to create a Linked Server that you can query from another server.
On the server you wish to write the query in:
Open the Object Explorer
Go to Server Objects
Right Click Linked Servers and add a New Linked Server
Add the Name of your networked server, select SQL server and make sure to define security roles.
I have three stored procedures Sp1, Sp2 and Sp3.
The first one (Sp1) will execute the second one (Sp2) and save returned data into #tempTB1 and the second one will execute the third one (Sp3) and save data into #tempTB2.
If I execute the Sp2 it will work and it will return me all my data from the Sp3, but the problem is in the Sp1, when I execute it it will display this error:
INSERT EXEC statement cannot be nested
I tried to change the place of execute Sp2 and it display me another error:
Cannot use the ROLLBACK statement
within an INSERT-EXEC statement.
This is a common issue when attempting to 'bubble' up data from a chain of stored procedures. A restriction in SQL Server is you can only have one INSERT-EXEC active at a time. I recommend looking at How to Share Data Between Stored Procedures which is a very thorough article on patterns to work around this type of problem.
For example a work around could be to turn Sp3 into a Table-valued function.
This is the only "simple" way to do this in SQL Server without some giant convoluted created function or executed sql string call, both of which are terrible solutions:
create a temp table
openrowset your stored procedure data into it
EXAMPLE:
INSERT INTO #YOUR_TEMP_TABLE
SELECT * FROM OPENROWSET ('SQLOLEDB','Server=(local);TRUSTED_CONNECTION=YES;','set fmtonly off EXEC [ServerName].dbo.[StoredProcedureName] 1,2,3')
Note: You MUST use 'set fmtonly off', AND you CANNOT add dynamic sql to this either inside the openrowset call, either for the string containing your stored procedure parameters or for the table name. Thats why you have to use a temp table rather than table variables, which would have been better, as it out performs temp table in most cases.
OK, encouraged by jimhark here is an example of the old single hash table approach: -
CREATE PROCEDURE SP3 as
BEGIN
SELECT 1, 'Data1'
UNION ALL
SELECT 2, 'Data2'
END
go
CREATE PROCEDURE SP2 as
BEGIN
if exists (select * from tempdb.dbo.sysobjects o where o.xtype in ('U') and o.id = object_id(N'tempdb..#tmp1'))
INSERT INTO #tmp1
EXEC SP3
else
EXEC SP3
END
go
CREATE PROCEDURE SP1 as
BEGIN
EXEC SP2
END
GO
/*
--I want some data back from SP3
-- Just run the SP1
EXEC SP1
*/
/*
--I want some data back from SP3 into a table to do something useful
--Try run this - get an error - can't nest Execs
if exists (select * from tempdb.dbo.sysobjects o where o.xtype in ('U') and o.id = object_id(N'tempdb..#tmp1'))
DROP TABLE #tmp1
CREATE TABLE #tmp1 (ID INT, Data VARCHAR(20))
INSERT INTO #tmp1
EXEC SP1
*/
/*
--I want some data back from SP3 into a table to do something useful
--However, if we run this single hash temp table it is in scope anyway so
--no need for the exec insert
if exists (select * from tempdb.dbo.sysobjects o where o.xtype in ('U') and o.id = object_id(N'tempdb..#tmp1'))
DROP TABLE #tmp1
CREATE TABLE #tmp1 (ID INT, Data VARCHAR(20))
EXEC SP1
SELECT * FROM #tmp1
*/
My work around for this problem has always been to use the principle that single hash temp tables are in scope to any called procs. So, I have an option switch in the proc parameters (default set to off). If this is switched on, the called proc will insert the results into the temp table created in the calling proc. I think in the past I have taken it a step further and put some code in the called proc to check if the single hash table exists in scope, if it does then insert the code, otherwise return the result set. Seems to work well - best way of passing large data sets between procs.
This trick works for me.
You don't have this problem on remote server, because on remote server, the last insert command waits for the result of previous command to execute. It's not the case on same server.
Profit that situation for a workaround.
If you have the right permission to create a Linked Server, do it.
Create the same server as linked server.
in SSMS, log into your server
go to "Server Object
Right Click on "Linked Servers", then "New Linked Server"
on the dialog, give any name of your linked server : eg: THISSERVER
server type is "Other data source"
Provider : Microsoft OLE DB Provider for SQL server
Data source: your IP, it can be also just a dot (.), because it's localhost
Go to the tab "Security" and choose the 3rd one "Be made using the login's current security context"
You can edit the server options (3rd tab) if you want
Press OK, your linked server is created
now your Sql command in the SP1 is
insert into #myTempTable
exec THISSERVER.MY_DATABASE_NAME.MY_SCHEMA.SP2
Believe me, it works even you have dynamic insert in SP2
I found a work around is to convert one of the prods into a table valued function. I realize that is not always possible, and introduces its own limitations. However, I have been able to always find at least one of the procedures a good candidate for this. I like this solution, because it doesn't introduce any "hacks" to the solution.
I encountered this issue when trying to import the results of a Stored Proc into a temp table, and that Stored Proc inserted into a temp table as part of its own operation. The issue being that SQL Server does not allow the same process to write to two different temp tables at the same time.
The accepted OPENROWSET answer works fine, but I needed to avoid using any Dynamic SQL or an external OLE provider in my process, so I went a different route.
One easy workaround I found was to change the temporary table in my stored procedure to a table variable. It works exactly the same as it did with a temp table, but no longer conflicts with my other temp table insert.
Just to head off the comment I know that a few of you are about to write, warning me off Table Variables as performance killers... All I can say to you is that in 2020 it pays dividends not to be afraid of Table Variables. If this was 2008 and my Database was hosted on a server with 16GB RAM and running off 5400RPM HDDs, I might agree with you. But it's 2020 and I have an SSD array as my primary storage and hundreds of gigs of RAM. I could load my entire company's database to a table variable and still have plenty of RAM to spare.
Table Variables are back on the menu!
I recommend to read this entire article. Below is the most relevant section of that article that addresses your question:
Rollback and Error Handling is Difficult
In my articles on Error and Transaction Handling in SQL Server, I suggest that you should always have an error handler like
BEGIN CATCH
IF ##trancount > 0 ROLLBACK TRANSACTION
EXEC error_handler_sp
RETURN 55555
END CATCH
The idea is that even if you do not start a transaction in the procedure, you should always include a ROLLBACK, because if you were not able to fulfil your contract, the transaction is not valid.
Unfortunately, this does not work well with INSERT-EXEC. If the called procedure executes a ROLLBACK statement, this happens:
Msg 3915, Level 16, State 0, Procedure SalesByStore, Line 9 Cannot use the ROLLBACK statement within an INSERT-EXEC statement.
The execution of the stored procedure is aborted. If there is no CATCH handler anywhere, the entire batch is aborted, and the transaction is rolled back. If the INSERT-EXEC is inside TRY-CATCH, that CATCH handler will fire, but the transaction is doomed, that is, you must roll it back. The net effect is that the rollback is achieved as requested, but the original error message that triggered the rollback is lost. That may seem like a small thing, but it makes troubleshooting much more difficult, because when you see this error, all you know is that something went wrong, but you don't know what.
I had the same issue and concern over duplicate code in two or more sprocs. I ended up adding an additional attribute for "mode". This allowed common code to exist inside one sproc and the mode directed flow and result set of the sproc.
what about just store the output to the static table ? Like
-- SubProcedure: subProcedureName
---------------------------------
-- Save the value
DELETE lastValue_subProcedureName
INSERT INTO lastValue_subProcedureName (Value)
SELECT #Value
-- Return the value
SELECT #Value
-- Procedure
--------------------------------------------
-- get last value of subProcedureName
SELECT Value FROM lastValue_subProcedureName
its not ideal, but its so simple and you don't need to rewrite everything.
UPDATE:
the previous solution does not work well with parallel queries (async and multiuser accessing) therefore now Iam using temp tables
-- A local temporary table created in a stored procedure is dropped automatically when the stored procedure is finished.
-- The table can be referenced by any nested stored procedures executed by the stored procedure that created the table.
-- The table cannot be referenced by the process that called the stored procedure that created the table.
IF OBJECT_ID('tempdb..#lastValue_spGetData') IS NULL
CREATE TABLE #lastValue_spGetData (Value INT)
-- trigger stored procedure with special silent parameter
EXEC dbo.spGetData 1 --silent mode parameter
nested spGetData stored procedure content
-- Save the output if temporary table exists.
IF OBJECT_ID('tempdb..#lastValue_spGetData') IS NOT NULL
BEGIN
DELETE #lastValue_spGetData
INSERT INTO #lastValue_spGetData(Value)
SELECT Col1 FROM dbo.Table1
END
-- stored procedure return
IF #silentMode = 0
SELECT Col1 FROM dbo.Table1
Declare an output cursor variable to the inner sp :
#c CURSOR VARYING OUTPUT
Then declare a cursor c to the select you want to return.
Then open the cursor.
Then set the reference:
DECLARE c CURSOR LOCAL FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR
SELECT ...
OPEN c
SET #c = c
DO NOT close or reallocate.
Now call the inner sp from the outer one supplying a cursor parameter like:
exec sp_abc a,b,c,, #cOUT OUTPUT
Once the inner sp executes, your #cOUT is ready to fetch. Loop and then close and deallocate.
If you are able to use other associated technologies such as C#, I suggest using the built in SQL command with Transaction parameter.
var sqlCommand = new SqlCommand(commandText, null, transaction);
I've created a simple Console App that demonstrates this ability which can be found here:
https://github.com/hecked12/SQL-Transaction-Using-C-Sharp
In short, C# allows you to overcome this limitation where you can inspect the output of each stored procedure and use that output however you like, for example you can feed it to another stored procedure. If the output is ok, you can commit the transaction, otherwise, you can revert the changes using rollback.
On SQL Server 2008 R2, I had a mismatch in table columns that caused the Rollback error. It went away when I fixed my sqlcmd table variable populated by the insert-exec statement to match that returned by the stored proc. It was missing org_code. In a windows cmd file, it loads result of stored procedure and selects it.
set SQLTXT= declare #resets as table (org_id nvarchar(9), org_code char(4), ^
tin(char9), old_strt_dt char(10), strt_dt char(10)); ^
insert #resets exec rsp_reset; ^
select * from #resets;
sqlcmd -U user -P pass -d database -S server -Q "%SQLTXT%" -o "OrgReport.txt"
I need the behaviour of SQL Server 2005 where function OBJECT_NAME takes two arguments, obj id and db id, while SQL Server 2000 takes only obj id so the execution must be in the context of the database to which inspected object belongs to.
Solution must be possible to implement in a function, so it can be used in a select query.
In SQL 2005 and up it is of course trivial to do this. The problem is SQL 2000. I used 2000 a lot back when, but no longer have access to any installations of it; the rest of this is largely from memory, and may be inaccurate.
The key thing is how to retrieve data from a database other than the "current" database, when you cannot know what that other database (or databases) will be at the time the code is written. (Yes, the db_id parameter is very convenient!) For this problem and for similar problems, the general work-around is to create dynamic code, something like:
SET #Command = 'select name from ' + #dbname + '.dbo.sysobjects where object_id = ' + #ObjectId
EXECUTE (#Command)
The problem is, I'm pretty sure you can't run dynamic code within functions (or perhaps just within SQL 2000 functions).
You might have to resort to creating a temp table, populating it via dynamic query, and then using it within the "main" query you are trying to write. Psuedo code would be like:
CREATE #TempTable
IF SQL2000 or earlier
INSERT #TempTable EXECUTE (select data from TargetDb.dbo.sysobjects)
-- Note that the entire insert may need to be in the dynamic statement
ELSE
INSERT #TempTable SELECT [from query based on object_id]
SELECT [the data you need]
from YourTable
join #TempTable
In SQL 2008 and up, use:
OBJECT_NAME ( object_id [, database_id ] )
for example:
SELECT TOP 10
object_schema_name(objectid, dbid) as [SchemaName],
object_name(objectid, dbid) as [ObjectName],
e.*
from sys.dm_exec_cached_plans P
CROSS APPLY sys.dm_exec_query_plan(P.plan_handle) E