Recursion inside loops - c

So there was an assignment given by my professor on recursion the question is as follows
Problem 1:
You are given scales for weighing loads. On the left side lies a single stone of known weight W < 2N . You own a set of N different weights, weighing 1, 2, 4, ..., 2N-1 units of mass respectively. Determine how many possible ways there are of placing some weights on the sides of the scales, so as to balance them (put them in a state of equilibrium).
The solution was also given
#include <stdio.h>
int N;
int no_ways(int W, int index) {
if (!W)
return 1;
if (index == N)
return 0;
int ans = 0, i;
for (i = 0; i * (1 << index) <= W; i++)
ans += no_ways(W - i * (1 << index), index + 1);
return ans;
}
void main() {
int W;
scanf("%d%d", &N, &W);
printf("%d\n", no_ways(W, 0));
return 0;
}
In this I understood how the base conditions were tested however I could not understand the recursive call inside the for loop and how the value of index differs in each recursive call.
Any easier approach or help in understanding this program?
PS: I am new to recursion and this seemed to be way too complex for me to understand

In order to understand recursion, I recommend you pick some very small input values and visualize it pen & paper style:
// Example Input:
W = 2, N = 2
// first call
no_ways(2, 0)
// loop0: i = 0 to 2
// first recursive call
no_ways(2, 1)
// loop1: i = 0 to 1
no_ways(2, 2)
= 0 (index == N)
no_ways(0, 2)
= 1 (W == 0)
= 1 (sum of recursions in loop1)
no_ways(1, 1)
// loop2: i = 0 to 0
no_ways(1, 2)
= 0 (index == N)
= 0 (sum of recursions in loop2)
no_ways(0, 1)
= 1 (W == 0)
= 2 (sum of recursions in loop0)
As you can see, the sequence of recursive calls and the collection of results becomes fairly complex even with this very small input, but I hope it's still readable to you.
As David C. Rankin mentioned in the comments, this algorithm is not really good. It will always reach recursion depth (number of nested calls) of N for any W > 0, even though it would be possible to detect early, when a specific recursion path is unable to produce any non-zero result.
The algorithm is written in a way, where with increasing index only W values that can be divided by 2^index are solveable.
So (for example) any recursion of the first function call, where W is an odd number, will never lead to any result other than 0, since all weights with index > 0 are even number weights.

The code you present solves different problem than you described. So either you made a mistake in your description or the solution is wrong.
The problem your code solves has a central condition like this:
You own a set of weights, weighing 1, 2, 4, ..., 2N-1 units of mass respectively, with arbitrary number of each weight
and additionally you can place those weights on one side of scales only (the one opposite to the stone).
This allows, for example, to balance weighing scale with a 2-unit stone in two ways, as the answer by grek40 shows: one solution is a single weigh of 2, the other one is two weighs 1 unit each.
Here is how your code achieves it.
The parameter W to a function no_ways represents an unbalanced (part of) weight of your stone, and the parameter index denotes the smallest weigh you can use. So to find all possible solutions we call no_ways(W,0) which corresponds to balancing the total weight of W with all available weighs.
The two base cases are 'there's no unbalanced weigh left', which means we found a solution, so we return 1; and 'we exhausted the allowed range of weighs`, which means we can not find a solution, so we return 0.
Then we try to expand a partial solution by trying to add the lightest available weighs to scales. The lightest weigh is (1 << index), which is 2index, so we multiply it by increasing values of i and subtract it from W; this is done with:
for (i = 0; i * (1 << index) <= W; i++)
(W - i * (1 << index), )
and we try to balance the remaining W - i * (1 << index) with the next available weigh (defined by the next value of index) by calling:
for (i = 0; i * (1 << index) <= W; i++)
no_ways(W - i * (1 << index), index + 1)
Finally we accumulate the number of solutions found by summing the results:
for (i = 0; i * (1 << index) <= W; i++)
ans += no_ways(W - i * (1 << index), index + 1);
The sum is returned up the recursion so that at the top level we get a number of all solutions found.
I have modified you code a bit to build and print an explicit representation of each solution found. It consists of an array int stack[] and a variable top, which indicates the free position in the stack. Initially top==0, the stack is empty.
Whenever the for() loop devises a decrement to W it puts the value onto the stack and advances the top pointer, so that recursive calls build up a solution in the array. On return from the recursion we decrement top so that a new iteration of for() can put a new value at the same place.
When we have a new solution, the whole stack is printed.
Here is the code:
int stack[15];
int top = 0;
void print_stack() {
int k;
for (k = 0; k < top; k ++)
printf(" %d", stack[k]);
printf("\n");
}
int N;
int no_ways(int W, int index) {
if (!W) {
print_stack();
return 1;
}
if (index == N)
return 0;
int ans = 0, i;
for (i = 0; i * (1 << index) <= W; i++) {
stack[top ++] = i * (1 << index);
ans += no_ways(W - i * (1 << index), index + 1);
top --;
}
return ans;
}
You can easily find all lines I added — those are lines containing 'stack' or 'top'.
For the case W=2, N=2 investigated by grek40 the code prints:
0 2
2
2
The last line shows there are two solutions found: the first is a weight 2 obtained with one 2-unit weigh and zero 1-unit weighs (correct) and the other one is TWO one-unit weighs.
Here are the results for W=5 and N=3:
1 0 4
1 4
3 2
5
4
These are solutions: 5=1+4 (correct), 5=1+2*2 (with a weigh of 2 units used twice), 5=3*1+2 (with a weigh of 1 unit used thrice) and 5=5*1 (with five one-unit weighs).
Solutions found in total: 4.
I have tested the code in an online compiler/debugger at https://www.onlinegdb.com/
EDIT
For solving the problem as you stated it, that is:
having precisely one weight equal 1 unit, one weight equal 2 units and so on through powers of 2 up to one weight of 2N-1 units, which can be placed on both sides of the scales, find a balance
you could modify the solution as follows.
Every weight can be placed either on the same plate where the stone is, thus adding a weight, or on the opposite one, thus (partially) reducing the weight – or can be left alone, out of the scales. The aim is to get a zero unbalanced weight. This corresponds to satisfying an equation like
W + s0×1 + s1×2 + s2×4 + ... + sN-1×2N-1 = 0
by choosing appropriately each sn term equal –1, 0 or 1.
That can be achieved with a simple modification of the code:
int no_ways(int W, int index) {
if (!W)
return 1;
if (index == N)
return 0;
int ans = 0, i;
for (i = -1; i <= 1; i++) // i equals -1, 0 or 1
ans += no_ways(W + i * (1 << index), index + 1);
return ans;
}

Related

Codility: MaxZeroProduct - complexity issues

My solution scored 100% correctness, but 0% Performance.
I just can't figure out how to minimize time complexity.
Problem:
Write a function:
int solution(int A[], int N);
that, given an array of N positive integers, returns the maximum number of trailing zeros of the number obtained by multiplying three different elements from the array. Numbers are considered different if they are at different positions in the array.
For example, given A = [7, 15, 6, 20, 5, 10], the function should return 3 (you can obtain three trailing zeros by taking the product of numbers 15, 20 and 10 or 20, 5 and 10).
For another example, given A = [25, 10, 25, 10, 32], the function should return 4 (you can obtain four trailing zeros by taking the product of numbers 25, 25 and 32).
Assume that:
N is an integer within the range [3..100,000];
each element of array A is an integer within the range [1..1,000,000,000].
Complexity:
expected worst-case time complexity is O(N*log(max(A)));
expected worst-case space complexity is O(N) (not counting the storage required for input arguments).
Solution:
the idea:
factorize each element into pairs of 5's and 2's
sum each 3 pairs into one pair - this costs O(N^3)
find the pair who's minimum coordinate value is the biggest
return that minimun coordinate value
the code:
int solution(int A[], int N) {
int fives = 0, twos = 0, max_zeros = 0;
int(*factors)[2] = calloc(N, sizeof(int[2])); //each item (x,y) represents the amount of 5's and 2's of the corresponding item in A
for (int i = 0; i< N; i++) {
factorize(A[i], &fives, &twos);
factors[i][0] = fives;
factors[i][1] = twos;
}
//O(N^3)
for (int i = 0; i<N; i++) {
for (int j = i + 1; j<N; j++) {
for (int k = j + 1; k<N; k++) {
int x = factors[i][0] + factors[j][0] + factors[k][0];
int y = factors[i][1] + factors[j][1] + factors[k][1];
max_zeros = max(max_zeros, min(x, y));
}
}
}
return max_zeros;
}
void factorize(int val, int* fives, int* twos) {
int tmp = val;
*fives = 0, *twos = 0;
if (val == 0) return;
while (val % 5 == 0) { //factors of 5
val /= 5;
(*fives)++;
}
while (val % 2 == 0) { //factors of 2
val /= 2;
(*twos)++;
}
}
I can't figure out how else i can iterate over the N-sized array in order to find the optimal 3 items in time O(N*log(max(A))).
Since 2^30 > 1e9 and 5^13 > 1e9, there's a limit of 30 * 13 = 390 different pairs of factors of 2 and 5 in the array, no matter how large the array. This is an upper bound (the actual number is 213).
Discard all but three representatives from the array for each pair, and then your O(N^3) algorithm is probably fast enough.
If it's still not fast enough, you can continue by applying dynamic programming, computing P[i,j], the largest product of factors of 2s and 5s of pairs of elements with index <=i of the form x * 2^y * 5^y+j (where x is divisible by neither 2 nor 5). This table can then be used in a second dynamic programming pass to find the product of three numbers with the most 0's.
In real world I don't like such meta-thinking, but still, we are faced some artificial problem with some artificial restrictions...
Since space complexity is O(N), we can't afford dynamic programming based on initial input. We can't even make a map of N*factors. Well, we can afford map of N*2, anyway, but that's mostly all we can.
Since time complexity is O(Nlog(max(A))), we can allow ourselves to factorize items and do some simple one-way reduction. Probably we can sort items with count sort - it's a bit more like Nlog^2(max(A)) for 2-index sorting, but big O will even it out.
If my spider sense is right, we should simply pick something out of this counts array and polish it with 1-run through array. Something like best count for 2, then best for 5, and then we can enumerate the rest of elements finding best overal product. It's just heuristic, but dimentions don't lie!
Just my 2 cents

How to make a program to list all possible three digit addition solutions to a user inputted number. (can not use zero)

I want to make a C program to that will give me all the possible ways to add three numbers(without using zero) to equal whatever the user entered. For example, if the user entered 4, the solutions would be 1+1+2. If the user entered 3, the only solution would be 1+1+1. From what I noticed, after 4, there is always another solution. So, if 5 was entered there would be 2 solutions..1+1+3,2+2+1...and if 6 was entered, there would be three solutions and the solution number would always increase by 1. The thing I can't figure out is the logic on how to get all the answers everytime. My current code is kind of brute force and just gives me the 1+1+(whatever number is left) solution and the other part only works for one solution and only if it is odd. My current code is as follows:
#include <stdio.h>
int main(void)
{
int num;
printf("Enter a number: ");
scanf("%d",&num);
if(num < 3)
printf("No solution.\n");
int p = num/2;
int q = num%2;
int v = num - (p+q);
printf("%d+%d+%d\n",p,q,v);//prints a single solution but only works for odd numbers
int k = num - 2;
printf("1+1+%d\n",k);
//prints a single solution but only 1+1+whatever is left
return 0;
}
Any advice or different way to approach this would be very helpful. I was told I could do 3 nested for loops but I was looking for a different approach.
This solution uses 3 nested for loops, (although I see that something else would be preferred). There is at least one other way:
Using recursion
There might be another one: solving the problem mathematically (and this would be the most elegant)
It is still brute force, but doesn't try some combinations that we know for sure that won't yield a (good) result.
Since the numbers order is not important meaning that for example:
6 =
1 + 2 + 3
1 + 3 + 2
2 + 1 + 3
2 + 3 + 1
3 + 1 + 2
3 + 2 + 1
all 6 permutations of (1, 2, 3) constitute a single solution, only one variant of the 3 numbers permutations matters. That we can use it in our advantage: we chose the 3 number sequence where No1 <= No2 <= No3 (No1 + No2 + No3 = N (entered by the user)).
That translates in lesser operations to compute: instead for each of the 3 indexes (i, j, k) which correspond to (No1, No2, No3) to swipe across the whole [1 .. n] interval:
The outer index (i) only iterates [1 .. n / 3] (it makes no point to go higher since the other 2 numbers are greater or equal to it, and if it did the sum would be greater than n). This alone reduces the number of operations to one third
The mid index (j) only iterates [i .. n / 2] (it doesn't go below the previous one since i <= j, and makes no sense to go higher than n / 2 since the other number will be greater or equal to it, and again the sum would be greater than n)
The inner index (k) only iterates [j .. n - 2] (it's obvious why).
Notes:
It might be possible (actually, I'm pretty sure) that the operations can be reduced even more
The last 3 variables declared (having the bogus names) are for speeding things up: they are calculated once, at the beginning (although I might be reinventing the wheel here since I'm pretty sure that the compiler is optimizing these kind of situations). But, regardless of the optimizations, the algorithm is still O(n ** 3) which is highly inefficient. I feel that I'm missing something obvious, but I can't put my finger on it
I checked (not very thoroughly though), and it doesn't seem to skip solutions
code.c:
#include <stdio.h>
void generate(int n) {
int i, j, k, count = 0, n_div_3 = n / 3, n_div_2 = n / 2, n_minus_1 = n - 1;
for (i = 1; i <= n_div_3; i++)
for (j = i; j <= n_div_2; j++)
for (k = j; k < n_minus_1; k++)
if (i + j + k == n) {
printf("Solution %d: %d %d %d\n", count++, i, j, k);
break;
}
printf("\n%d solutions\n", count);
}
int main () {
int num;
printf("Enter a number: ");
scanf("%d", &num);
generate(num);
return 0;
}

calculate expected cost of final product using atleast k out of n items in c

Suppose I have 4 items and i have to pick at least 1 item to make a product out of them.
I have cost corresponding to each item as Item1 -> 4 , Item2 -> 7 , Item3 -> 2 , Item4 -> 5.I have to to find expected cost of the final product means an average of all possible combinations Item used like if I use only 1 item then cost may be 4 , 7 , 2 , 5 and if if i use 2 items the cost would be 4+7 , 4+2 , 4+5 , 7+2 , 7+5 , 2+5 and similarly all combinations for using three items and 4+2+7+5 for using four items.Adding those all combinations and dividng them with no. of combination gives me expected cost of the final product.So I want to find sum of all these combinations then how can I go for it??
I think recursion will be used for calculating these combination but unable to apply ???
Instead of using recursion to generate all the possible subsets, you can use bit manipulation. For the example given with 4 items, there are 2^4 possible subsets. So you can represent these 2^4 subsets using a 4 digit binary number. The binary numbers will count from 0 to 2^4-1=15. And for each number, you check the state of the 4 bits. If the bit is set then that element is included in that subset, otherwise it is not.
You can easily implement this logic in the form of a Working Java Program.
int[] arr = {4 , 7 , 2 , 5};
double ans = 0;
int numCombinations = (int)Math.pow(2, arr.length);
// Iterate over all the subsets represented in the form of binary numbers
for(int i=0; i<numCombinations; i++){
int sum = 0;
// check whether a bit is set or not. If the bit is set, then that
// number is present in that subset, else it is not present.
for(int bit=0; bit<arr.length; bit++){
if( (i & (1<<bit)) != 0){
sum += arr[bit];
}
}
ans += (double)sum;
}
//Divide by numCombinations-1 as we are not considering the empty subset{}
System.out.println(ans/(numCombinations-1));
This program correctly calculates the answer as 9.6 for the given case.
Running Time O(n.2^n)
Edit: A better solution
Suppose you are generating all subsets of n elements. Now there are two possibilities for the n the element. It will either be included or it will be not included. So suppose you have all the n-1 element subsets. For all these n-1 element subsets, you will do one of the above mentioned two cases, ie. you will include the nth element or not. Thus, we can say that if we have a total of M subsets, then any element will be present M/2 times.
In the given case M is 2^n as we are generating all the subsets. So any element will be present 2^(n-1) times.
So the total sum of all the numbers in all the subsets will be
Sum of numbers of all subsets = arr[0] * 2^(n-1) + arr1 * 2^(n-1) + .......arr[n] * 2^(n-1)
dividing this by the number of subsets will give the answer.
Total number of subsets = 2^n - 1.
We are subtracting 1 as we are not considering the empty subset {}.
So for the given case, answer will become
(4+7+2+5) * 2^(n-1) / (2^n - 1) = 9.6
Running Time: O(n)
There is a lot of symmetry in this problem which means you don't need a program to solve it.
(1) There are 4 possible "products" with 1 part
(2) There are 6 (4*3/2) products with 2 parts
(3) There are 4 (4*3*2/(3*2*1) products with 3 parts
(4) There is one product with 4 parts.
Total number of combinations = 15 (I assume we can ignore the "one product with zero parts").
Now in each case, every item is used the same fractional number of times:
for (1), you use each 1/4 of the time
for (2), you use each 1/2 of the time
for (3), you use each 3/4 of the time
for (4), you use them all the time.
So each part is used in a total of 1 + 3 + 3 + 1 = 8 out of 15 configurations.
Thus the "expected cost" is
(8/15) * (4+7+2+5) = 18 * 8 / 15 = 9.6
edit how could you have come up with the number 8/15 without explicitly counting? Well, you could note that you can think of the possible combinations (part is used or part is not used) as a binary number with four digits (since there are four parts) - this has been pointed out in other answers. When you list all binary numbers from 0b0000 to 0b1111 you know every position will have the same number of ones and zeros - 8 of each. Leaving out 0b0000 which is "not a product", you find yourself still with 8 ones for each product - thus 8 out of 15.
If you represent the use of an item as a set bit in an integer then you can simply iterate from 1 to 15 and use bit manipulation to determine the cost.
In (pseudo) C
cost = 0.0;
for(i=1;i<=15;++i)
{
for(j=0;j<4;++j)
{
if(i & (1<<j)) cost += item_cost[j];
}
}
average = cost / 15.0;
Edit:
Assuming that you want to put a bound of k on the fewest number of items
n = 0;
cost = 0.0;
for(i=1;i<=15;++i)
{
sum = 0.0;
used = 0;
for(j=0;j<4;++j)
{
if(i & (1<<j))
{
sum += item_cost[j];
++used;
}
}
if(used>=k)
{
cost += sum;
++n;
}
}
average = cost / n;
There is nothing to distinguish your items from each other, and the set of combinations is entirely symmetric, so in the set of all possible combinations, every item is selected the same number of times as every other item.
So we can simplify the problem by replacing every item's cost with the average item cost, and then just count the number of items selected in all combinations and the total number of combinations. That makes the average cost of a combination:
average item cost * total number of items
-----------------------------------------
total number of combinations
In the case where k = 1, the total number of combinations is 2n-1 and the total number of items in all the combinations is n×2n-1.
Your problem can be solved mathematically-
Let 'n' be total no. of elements & 'k' be no. of items to be consider for combinations.
SUM = sum of all elements in array
COMBINATIONS = k items selected from n i.e., (n C k)
FREQUENCY = frequency of each item in all combinations i.e., (n-1 C k-1)
So the solution is-
Ans = SUM * FREQUENCY / COMBINATIONS
After simplification-
Ans = SUM * k / n
package com.kvvssut.misc;
public class AverageOfCombinations {
public static void main(String[] args) {
System.out.println(getAverageOfAllKCombinations(new int[]{4,7,2,5,8}, 3));
}
private static double getAverageOfAllKCombinations(int[] inputs, int k) {
int n = inputs.length;
long sum = 0;
for (int i = 0; i < n; i++) {
sum += inputs[i];
}
double output = 0;
if (k >= n) {
output = sum;
} else if (k > 0) {
double combinations = 1;
double divider = 1;
for (int i = n; i > k; i--) {
combinations *= i;
}
for (int i = 2; i <= k; i++) {
divider *= i;
}
combinations /= divider;
double frequency = 1;
for (int i = n - 1; i > k; i--) {
frequency *= i;
}
divider = 1;
for (int i = 2; i < k; i++) {
divider *= i;
}
frequency /= divider;
output = sum * frequency / combinations;
}
return output;
}
}
Plz correct me if wrong.

Replace for loop with formula

I have this loop that runs in O(end - start) and I would like to replace it with something O(1).
If "width" wouldn't be decreasing, it would be pretty simple.
for (int i = start; i <= end; i++, width--)
if (i % 3 > 0) // 1 or 2, but not 0
z += width;
start, end and width have positive values
As someone else mentioned, this is probably easiest to think of as the sum of two series.
x x+3 x+6 ... x+3N
+ x+3N x+3(N-1) x+3(N-2) ... x
-----------------------------------
2x+3N 2x+3N 2x+3N ... 2x+3N
The above can be simplified to
(2x+3N)(N+1)
Which means the sum of one of them is really ...
(2x+3N)(N+1)/2
This equation would need to be applied for both series. It is possible that N would be different for both.
Thus, all you have to do is determine your starting point, and the number of items in the series. That shall be left as an exercise for the student.
Hope this helps.
Notice that
width == initial_width - (i - start)
so the summation can be rewritten as
end
—————
\ (initial_width + start - i)
/
—————
i=start
i mod 3 ≠ 0
end ⌊end/3⌋
————— —————
== \ (initial_width + start - i) —— \ (initial_width + start - 3j)
/ /
————— —————
i=start j=⌈start/3⌉
The rest should be simple.
It's probably easiest to think of this as the sum of two separate series, one for when i%3 = 1 and the other for when i%3=2. Alternatively, you could figure it as the sum for all values of i minus the sum for i%3=0. For the sake of argument, let's look at the first half of the latter approach: summing all the values of width.
In this case, width will start at some initial value, and each iteration its value will be reduced by 1. In the last iteration, its value will have been reduced by (end-start). Perhaps it's easiest to think of it as a triangle. Just to keep things simple, we'll use small numbers -- we'll start with width = 5, start = 1 and end = 5. Perhaps it's easiest to draw a diagram:
Values of width:
*
**
***
****
*****
What we're really looking for is the area of that triangle -- which is a pretty well-known formula from elementary geometry -- 1/2ab, where a and b are the lengths of the two sides (in this case, defined by the initial value of width and end-start). That assumes it really is a triangle though -- i.e. that it decrements down to 0. In reality, there's a good chance that we're dealing with a truncated triangle -- but the formula for that is also well known (1/2a1b + 1/2a2b, where the a's are the heights of the right and left sides, and b is the width.
I came up with this ugly method:
int start; // = some number
int end; // = ...
int initialwidth; // = ...
int each = (end+1)/3 - (start-1)/3 - 1;
int loop = 2*(3-(start+2)%3)+1;
int total = each*loop + 3*each*(each-1) + (start%3==1) + (end-start)*(end%3==1);
int result = -total + initialwidth*(1 + end - start - end/3 + (start-1)/3);
total will give the sum of (i-start)s when (i%3 > 0) for i=start to end.
result will give the sum of widths added to z.
The closed form of sum(i=1 ... n) i is (n)(n+1)/2. You should be able to use this with a little algebra to find a closed form that provides you with the result you're looking for.
Do you want something like z = 2 * width * (start - end) / 3 + (start - end) % 3? (not quite right, but close enough to get you on the right track.
This isn't a full answer, but you should notice that:
x = end - start;
k = ~(-1 << x); // I think (width * k)>>x would be your z except if you didn't have the contidional
and that a value that from LSB up has two bits set, one bit cleared, two bits set, one bit cleared (0x...011011011) could be used to compute where the %3 is 0.
R = k - (k & 0x...011011011); // This is the series 3 + (3 << 3) + (3 << 6) ...
z = (R * width)>>x; // I think.
Just something to try. I've probably made some kind of mistake.

Algorithm to determine if array contains n...n+m?

I saw this question on Reddit, and there were no positive solutions presented, and I thought it would be a perfect question to ask here. This was in a thread about interview questions:
Write a method that takes an int array of size m, and returns (True/False) if the array consists of the numbers n...n+m-1, all numbers in that range and only numbers in that range. The array is not guaranteed to be sorted. (For instance, {2,3,4} would return true. {1,3,1} would return false, {1,2,4} would return false.
The problem I had with this one is that my interviewer kept asking me to optimize (faster O(n), less memory, etc), to the point where he claimed you could do it in one pass of the array using a constant amount of memory. Never figured that one out.
Along with your solutions please indicate if they assume that the array contains unique items. Also indicate if your solution assumes the sequence starts at 1. (I've modified the question slightly to allow cases where it goes 2, 3, 4...)
edit: I am now of the opinion that there does not exist a linear in time and constant in space algorithm that handles duplicates. Can anyone verify this?
The duplicate problem boils down to testing to see if the array contains duplicates in O(n) time, O(1) space. If this can be done you can simply test first and if there are no duplicates run the algorithms posted. So can you test for dupes in O(n) time O(1) space?
Under the assumption numbers less than one are not allowed and there are no duplicates, there is a simple summation identity for this - the sum of numbers from 1 to m in increments of 1 is (m * (m + 1)) / 2. You can then sum the array and use this identity.
You can find out if there is a dupe under the above guarantees, plus the guarantee no number is above m or less than n (which can be checked in O(N))
The idea in pseudo-code:
0) Start at N = 0
1) Take the N-th element in the list.
2) If it is not in the right place if the list had been sorted, check where it should be.
3) If the place where it should be already has the same number, you have a dupe - RETURN TRUE
4) Otherwise, swap the numbers (to put the first number in the right place).
5) With the number you just swapped with, is it in the right place?
6) If no, go back to step two.
7) Otherwise, start at step one with N = N + 1. If this would be past the end of the list, you have no dupes.
And, yes, that runs in O(N) although it may look like O(N ^ 2)
Note to everyone (stuff collected from comments)
This solution works under the assumption you can modify the array, then uses in-place Radix sort (which achieves O(N) speed).
Other mathy-solutions have been put forth, but I'm not sure any of them have been proved. There are a bunch of sums that might be useful, but most of them run into a blowup in the number of bits required to represent the sum, which will violate the constant extra space guarantee. I also don't know if any of them are capable of producing a distinct number for a given set of numbers. I think a sum of squares might work, which has a known formula to compute it (see Wolfram's)
New insight (well, more of musings that don't help solve it but are interesting and I'm going to bed):
So, it has been mentioned to maybe use sum + sum of squares. No one knew if this worked or not, and I realized that it only becomes an issue when (x + y) = (n + m), such as the fact 2 + 2 = 1 + 3. Squares also have this issue thanks to Pythagorean triples (so 3^2 + 4^2 + 25^2 == 5^2 + 7^2 + 24^2, and the sum of squares doesn't work). If we use Fermat's last theorem, we know this can't happen for n^3. But we also don't know if there is no x + y + z = n for this (unless we do and I don't know it). So no guarantee this, too, doesn't break - and if we continue down this path we quickly run out of bits.
In my glee, however, I forgot to note that you can break the sum of squares, but in doing so you create a normal sum that isn't valid. I don't think you can do both, but, as has been noted, we don't have a proof either way.
I must say, finding counterexamples is sometimes a lot easier than proving things! Consider the following sequences, all of which have a sum of 28 and a sum of squares of 140:
[1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7]
[1, 1, 4, 5, 5, 6, 6]
[2, 2, 3, 3, 4, 7, 7]
I could not find any such examples of length 6 or less. If you want an example that has the proper min and max values too, try this one of length 8:
[1, 3, 3, 4, 4, 5, 8, 8]
Simpler approach (modifying hazzen's idea):
An integer array of length m contains all the numbers from n to n+m-1 exactly once iff
every array element is between n and n+m-1
there are no duplicates
(Reason: there are only m values in the given integer range, so if the array contains m unique values in this range, it must contain every one of them once)
If you are allowed to modify the array, you can check both in one pass through the list with a modified version of hazzen's algorithm idea (there is no need to do any summation):
For all array indexes i from 0 to m-1 do
If array[i] < n or array[i] >= n+m => RETURN FALSE ("value out of range found")
Calculate j = array[i] - n (this is the 0-based position of array[i] in a sorted array with values from n to n+m-1)
While j is not equal to i
If list[i] is equal to list[j] => RETURN FALSE ("duplicate found")
Swap list[i] with list[j]
Recalculate j = array[i] - n
RETURN TRUE
I'm not sure if the modification of the original array counts against the maximum allowed additional space of O(1), but if it doesn't this should be the solution the original poster wanted.
By working with a[i] % a.length instead of a[i] you reduce the problem to needing to determine that you've got the numbers 0 to a.length - 1.
We take this observation for granted and try to check if the array contains [0,m).
Find the first node that's not in its correct position, e.g.
0 1 2 3 7 5 6 8 4 ; the original dataset (after the renaming we discussed)
^
`---this is position 4 and the 7 shouldn't be here
Swap that number into where it should be. i.e. swap the 7 with the 8:
0 1 2 3 8 5 6 7 4 ;
| `--------- 7 is in the right place.
`--------------- this is now the 'current' position
Now we repeat this. Looking again at our current position we ask:
"is this the correct number for here?"
If not, we swap it into its correct place.
If it is in the right place, we move right and do this again.
Following this rule again, we get:
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 ; 4 and 8 were just swapped
This will gradually build up the list correctly from left to right, and each number will be moved at most once, and hence this is O(n).
If there are dupes, we'll notice it as soon is there is an attempt to swap a number backwards in the list.
Why do the other solutions use a summation of every value? I think this is risky, because when you add together O(n) items into one number, you're technically using more than O(1) space.
Simpler method:
Step 1, figure out if there are any duplicates. I'm not sure if this is possible in O(1) space. Anyway, return false if there are duplicates.
Step 2, iterate through the list, keep track of the lowest and highest items.
Step 3, Does (highest - lowest) equal m ? If so, return true.
Any one-pass algorithm requires Omega(n) bits of storage.
Suppose to the contrary that there exists a one-pass algorithm that uses o(n) bits. Because it makes only one pass, it must summarize the first n/2 values in o(n) space. Since there are C(n,n/2) = 2^Theta(n) possible sets of n/2 values drawn from S = {1,...,n}, there exist two distinct sets A and B of n/2 values such that the state of memory is the same after both. If A' = S \ A is the "correct" set of values to complement A, then the algorithm cannot possibly answer correctly for the inputs
A A' - yes
B A' - no
since it cannot distinguish the first case from the second.
Q.E.D.
Vote me down if I'm wrong, but I think we can determine if there are duplicates or not using variance. Because we know the mean beforehand (n + (m-1)/2 or something like that) we can just sum up the numbers and square of difference to mean to see if the sum matches the equation (mn + m(m-1)/2) and the variance is (0 + 1 + 4 + ... + (m-1)^2)/m. If the variance doesn't match, it's likely we have a duplicate.
EDIT: variance is supposed to be (0 + 1 + 4 + ... + [(m-1)/2]^2)*2/m, because half of the elements are less than the mean and the other half is greater than the mean.
If there is a duplicate, a term on the above equation will differ from the correct sequence, even if another duplicate completely cancels out the change in mean. So the function returns true only if both sum and variance matches the desrired values, which we can compute beforehand.
Here's a working solution in O(n)
This is using the pseudocode suggested by Hazzen plus some of my own ideas. It works for negative numbers as well and doesn't require any sum-of-the-squares stuff.
function testArray($nums, $n, $m) {
// check the sum. PHP offers this array_sum() method, but it's
// trivial to write your own. O(n) here.
if (array_sum($nums) != ($m * ($m + 2 * $n - 1) / 2)) {
return false; // checksum failed.
}
for ($i = 0; $i < $m; ++$i) {
// check if the number is in the proper range
if ($nums[$i] < $n || $nums[$i] >= $n + $m) {
return false; // value out of range.
}
while (($shouldBe = $nums[$i] - $n) != $i) {
if ($nums[$shouldBe] == $nums[$i]) {
return false; // duplicate
}
$temp = $nums[$i];
$nums[$i] = $nums[$shouldBe];
$nums[$shouldBe] = $temp;
}
}
return true; // huzzah!
}
var_dump(testArray(array(1, 2, 3, 4, 5), 1, 5)); // true
var_dump(testArray(array(5, 4, 3, 2, 1), 1, 5)); // true
var_dump(testArray(array(6, 4, 3, 2, 0), 1, 5)); // false - out of range
var_dump(testArray(array(5, 5, 3, 2, 1), 1, 5)); // false - checksum fail
var_dump(testArray(array(5, 4, 3, 2, 5), 1, 5)); // false - dupe
var_dump(testArray(array(-2, -1, 0, 1, 2), -2, 5)); // true
Awhile back I heard about a very clever sorting algorithm from someone who worked for the phone company. They had to sort a massive number of phone numbers. After going through a bunch of different sort strategies, they finally hit on a very elegant solution: they just created a bit array and treated the offset into the bit array as the phone number. They then swept through their database with a single pass, changing the bit for each number to 1. After that, they swept through the bit array once, spitting out the phone numbers for entries that had the bit set high.
Along those lines, I believe that you can use the data in the array itself as a meta data structure to look for duplicates. Worst case, you could have a separate array, but I'm pretty sure you can use the input array if you don't mind a bit of swapping.
I'm going to leave out the n parameter for time being, b/c that just confuses things - adding in an index offset is pretty easy to do.
Consider:
for i = 0 to m
if (a[a[i]]==a[i]) return false; // we have a duplicate
while (a[a[i]] > a[i]) swapArrayIndexes(a[i], i)
sum = sum + a[i]
next
if sum = (n+m-1)*m return true else return false
This isn't O(n) - probably closer to O(n Log n) - but it does provide for constant space and may provide a different vector of attack for the problem.
If we want O(n), then using an array of bytes and some bit operations will provide the duplication check with an extra n/32 bytes of memory used (assuming 32 bit ints, of course).
EDIT: The above algorithm could be improved further by adding the sum check to the inside of the loop, and check for:
if sum > (n+m-1)*m return false
that way it will fail fast.
Assuming you know only the length of the array and you are allowed to modify the array it can be done in O(1) space and O(n) time.
The process has two straightforward steps.
1. "modulo sort" the array. [5,3,2,4] => [4,5,2,3] (O(2n))
2. Check that each value's neighbor is one higher than itself (modulo) (O(n))
All told you need at most 3 passes through the array.
The modulo sort is the 'tricky' part, but the objective is simple. Take each value in the array and store it at its own address (modulo length). This requires one pass through the array, looping over each location 'evicting' its value by swapping it to its correct location and moving in the value at its destination. If you ever move in a value which is congruent to the value you just evicted, you have a duplicate and can exit early.
Worst case, it's O(2n).
The check is a single pass through the array examining each value with it's next highest neighbor. Always O(n).
Combined algorithm is O(n)+O(2n) = O(3n) = O(n)
Pseudocode from my solution:
foreach(values[])
while(values[i] not congruent to i)
to-be-evicted = values[i]
evict(values[i]) // swap to its 'proper' location
if(values[i]%length == to-be-evicted%length)
return false; // a 'duplicate' arrived when we evicted that number
end while
end foreach
foreach(values[])
if((values[i]+1)%length != values[i+1]%length)
return false
end foreach
I've included the java code proof of concept below, it's not pretty, but it passes all the unit tests I made for it. I call these a 'StraightArray' because they correspond to the poker hand of a straight (contiguous sequence ignoring suit).
public class StraightArray {
static int evict(int[] a, int i) {
int t = a[i];
a[i] = a[t%a.length];
a[t%a.length] = t;
return t;
}
static boolean isStraight(int[] values) {
for(int i = 0; i < values.length; i++) {
while(values[i]%values.length != i) {
int evicted = evict(values, i);
if(evicted%values.length == values[i]%values.length) {
return false;
}
}
}
for(int i = 0; i < values.length-1; i++) {
int n = (values[i]%values.length)+1;
int m = values[(i+1)]%values.length;
if(n != m) {
return false;
}
}
return true;
}
}
Hazzen's algorithm implementation in C
#include<stdio.h>
#define swapxor(a,i,j) a[i]^=a[j];a[j]^=a[i];a[i]^=a[j];
int check_ntom(int a[], int n, int m) {
int i = 0, j = 0;
for(i = 0; i < m; i++) {
if(a[i] < n || a[i] >= n+m) return 0; //invalid entry
j = a[i] - n;
while(j != i) {
if(a[i]==a[j]) return -1; //bucket already occupied. Dupe.
swapxor(a, i, j); //faster bitwise swap
j = a[i] - n;
if(a[i]>=n+m) return 0; //[NEW] invalid entry
}
}
return 200; //OK
}
int main() {
int n=5, m=5;
int a[] = {6, 5, 7, 9, 8};
int r = check_ntom(a, n, m);
printf("%d", r);
return 0;
}
Edit: change made to the code to eliminate illegal memory access.
boolean determineContinuousArray(int *arr, int len)
{
// Suppose the array is like below:
//int arr[10] = {7,11,14,9,8,100,12,5,13,6};
//int len = sizeof(arr)/sizeof(int);
int n = arr[0];
int *result = new int[len];
for(int i=0; i< len; i++)
result[i] = -1;
for (int i=0; i < len; i++)
{
int cur = arr[i];
int hold ;
if ( arr[i] < n){
n = arr[i];
}
while(true){
if ( cur - n >= len){
cout << "array index out of range: meaning this is not a valid array" << endl;
return false;
}
else if ( result[cur - n] != cur){
hold = result[cur - n];
result[cur - n] = cur;
if (hold == -1) break;
cur = hold;
}else{
cout << "found duplicate number " << cur << endl;
return false;
}
}
}
cout << "this is a valid array" << endl;
for(int j=0 ; j< len; j++)
cout << result[j] << "," ;
cout << endl;
return true;
}
def test(a, n, m):
seen = [False] * m
for x in a:
if x < n or x >= n+m:
return False
if seen[x-n]:
return False
seen[x-n] = True
return False not in seen
print test([2, 3, 1], 1, 3)
print test([1, 3, 1], 1, 3)
print test([1, 2, 4], 1, 3)
Note that this only makes one pass through the first array, not considering the linear search involved in not in. :)
I also could have used a python set, but I opted for the straightforward solution where the performance characteristics of set need not be considered.
Update: Smashery pointed out that I had misparsed "constant amount of memory" and this solution doesn't actually solve the problem.
If you want to know the sum of the numbers [n ... n + m - 1] just use this equation.
var sum = m * (m + 2 * n - 1) / 2;
That works for any number, positive or negative, even if n is a decimal.
Why do the other solutions use a summation of every value? I think this is risky, because when you add together O(n) items into one number, you're technically using more than O(1) space.
O(1) indicates constant space which does not change by the number of n. It does not matter if it is 1 or 2 variables as long as it is a constant number. Why are you saying it is more than O(1) space? If you are calculating the sum of n numbers by accumulating it in a temporary variable, you would be using exactly 1 variable anyway.
Commenting in an answer because the system does not allow me to write comments yet.
Update (in reply to comments): in this answer i meant O(1) space wherever "space" or "time" was omitted. The quoted text is a part of an earlier answer to which this is a reply to.
Given this -
Write a method that takes an int array of size m ...
I suppose it is fair to conclude there is an upper limit for m, equal to the value of the largest int (2^32 being typical). In other words, even though m is not specified as an int, the fact that the array can't have duplicates implies there can't be more than the number of values you can form out of 32 bits, which in turn implies m is limited to be an int also.
If such a conclusion is acceptable, then I propose to use a fixed space of (2^33 + 2) * 4 bytes = 34,359,738,376 bytes = 34.4GB to handle all possible cases. (Not counting the space required by the input array and its loop).
Of course, for optimization, I would first take m into account, and allocate only the actual amount needed, (2m+2) * 4 bytes.
If this is acceptable for the O(1) space constraint - for the stated problem - then let me proceed to an algorithmic proposal... :)
Assumptions: array of m ints, positive or negative, none greater than what 4 bytes can hold. Duplicates are handled. First value can be any valid int. Restrict m as above.
First, create an int array of length 2m-1, ary, and provide three int variables: left, diff, and right. Notice that makes 2m+2...
Second, take the first value from the input array and copy it to position m-1 in the new array. Initialize the three variables.
set ary[m-1] - nthVal // n=0
set left = diff = right = 0
Third, loop through the remaining values in the input array and do the following for each iteration:
set diff = nthVal - ary[m-1]
if (diff > m-1 + right || diff < 1-m + left) return false // out of bounds
if (ary[m-1+diff] != null) return false // duplicate
set ary[m-1+diff] = nthVal
if (diff>left) left = diff // constrains left bound further right
if (diff<right) right = diff // constrains right bound further left
I decided to put this in code, and it worked.
Here is a working sample using C#:
public class Program
{
static bool puzzle(int[] inAry)
{
var m = inAry.Count();
var outAry = new int?[2 * m - 1];
int diff = 0;
int left = 0;
int right = 0;
outAry[m - 1] = inAry[0];
for (var i = 1; i < m; i += 1)
{
diff = inAry[i] - inAry[0];
if (diff > m - 1 + right || diff < 1 - m + left) return false;
if (outAry[m - 1 + diff] != null) return false;
outAry[m - 1 + diff] = inAry[i];
if (diff > left) left = diff;
if (diff < right) right = diff;
}
return true;
}
static void Main(string[] args)
{
var inAry = new int[3]{ 2, 3, 4 };
Console.WriteLine(puzzle(inAry));
inAry = new int[13] { -3, 5, -1, -2, 9, 8, 2, 3, 0, 6, 4, 7, 1 };
Console.WriteLine(puzzle(inAry));
inAry = new int[3] { 21, 31, 41 };
Console.WriteLine(puzzle(inAry));
Console.ReadLine();
}
}
note: this comment is based on the original text of the question (it has been corrected since)
If the question is posed exactly as written above (and it is not just a typo) and for array of size n the function should return (True/False) if the array consists of the numbers 1...n+1,
... then the answer will always be false because the array with all the numbers 1...n+1 will be of size n+1 and not n. hence the question can be answered in O(1). :)
Counter-example for XOR algorithm.
(can't post it as a comment)
#popopome
For a = {0, 2, 7, 5,} it return true (means that a is a permutation of the range [0, 4) ), but it must return false in this case (a is obviously is not a permutaton of [0, 4) ).
Another counter example: {0, 0, 1, 3, 5, 6, 6} -- all values are in range but there are duplicates.
I could incorrectly implement popopome's idea (or tests), therefore here is the code:
bool isperm_popopome(int m; int a[m], int m, int n)
{
/** O(m) in time (single pass), O(1) in space,
no restrictions on n,
no overflow,
a[] may be readonly
*/
int even_xor = 0;
int odd_xor = 0;
for (int i = 0; i < m; ++i)
{
if (a[i] % 2 == 0) // is even
even_xor ^= a[i];
else
odd_xor ^= a[i];
const int b = i + n;
if (b % 2 == 0) // is even
even_xor ^= b;
else
odd_xor ^= b;
}
return (even_xor == 0) && (odd_xor == 0);
}
A C version of b3's pseudo-code
(to avoid misinterpretation of the pseudo-code)
Counter example: {1, 1, 2, 4, 6, 7, 7}.
int pow_minus_one(int power)
{
return (power % 2 == 0) ? 1 : -1;
}
int ceil_half(int n)
{
return n / 2 + (n % 2);
}
bool isperm_b3_3(int m; int a[m], int m, int n)
{
/**
O(m) in time (single pass), O(1) in space,
doesn't use n
possible overflow in sum
a[] may be readonly
*/
int altsum = 0;
int mina = INT_MAX;
int maxa = INT_MIN;
for (int i = 0; i < m; ++i)
{
const int v = a[i] - n + 1; // [n, n+m-1] -> [1, m] to deal with n=0
if (mina > v)
mina = v;
if (maxa < v)
maxa = v;
altsum += pow_minus_one(v) * v;
}
return ((maxa-mina == m-1)
and ((pow_minus_one(mina + m-1) * ceil_half(mina + m-1)
- pow_minus_one(mina-1) * ceil_half(mina-1)) == altsum));
}
In Python:
def ispermutation(iterable, m, n):
"""Whether iterable and the range [n, n+m) have the same elements.
pre-condition: there are no duplicates in the iterable
"""
for i, elem in enumerate(iterable):
if not n <= elem < n+m:
return False
return i == m-1
print(ispermutation([1, 42], 2, 1) == False)
print(ispermutation(range(10), 10, 0) == True)
print(ispermutation((2, 1, 3), 3, 1) == True)
print(ispermutation((2, 1, 3), 3, 0) == False)
print(ispermutation((2, 1, 3), 4, 1) == False)
print(ispermutation((2, 1, 3), 2, 1) == False)
It is O(m) in time and O(1) in space. It does not take into account duplicates.
Alternate solution:
def ispermutation(iterable, m, n):
"""Same as above.
pre-condition: assert(len(list(iterable)) == m)
"""
return all(n <= elem < n+m for elem in iterable)
MY CURRENT BEST OPTION
def uniqueSet( array )
check_index = 0;
check_value = 0;
min = array[0];
array.each_with_index{ |value,index|
check_index = check_index ^ ( 1 << index );
check_value = check_value ^ ( 1 << value );
min = value if value < min
}
check_index = check_index << min;
return check_index == check_value;
end
O(n) and Space O(1)
I wrote a script to brute force combinations that could fail that and it didn't find any.
If you have an array which contravenes this function do tell. :)
#J.F. Sebastian
Its not a true hashing algorithm. Technically, its a highly efficient packed boolean array of "seen" values.
ci = 0, cv = 0
[5,4,3]{
i = 0
v = 5
1 << 0 == 000001
1 << 5 == 100000
0 ^ 000001 = 000001
0 ^ 100000 = 100000
i = 1
v = 4
1 << 1 == 000010
1 << 4 == 010000
000001 ^ 000010 = 000011
100000 ^ 010000 = 110000
i = 2
v = 3
1 << 2 == 000100
1 << 3 == 001000
000011 ^ 000100 = 000111
110000 ^ 001000 = 111000
}
min = 3
000111 << 3 == 111000
111000 === 111000
The point of this being mostly that in order to "fake" most the problem cases one uses duplicates to do so. In this system, XOR penalises you for using the same value twice and assumes you instead did it 0 times.
The caveats here being of course:
both input array length and maximum array value is limited by the maximum value for $x in ( 1 << $x > 0 )
ultimate effectiveness depends on how your underlying system implements the abilities to:
shift 1 bit n places right.
xor 2 registers. ( where 'registers' may, depending on implementation, span several registers )
edit
Noted, above statements seem confusing. Assuming a perfect machine, where an "integer" is a register with Infinite precision, which can still perform a ^ b in O(1) time.
But failing these assumptions, one has to start asking the algorithmic complexity of simple math.
How complex is 1 == 1 ?, surely that should be O(1) every time right?.
What about 2^32 == 2^32 .
O(1)? 2^33 == 2^33? Now you've got a question of register size and the underlying implementation.
Fortunately XOR and == can be done in parallel, so if one assumes infinite precision and a machine designed to cope with infinite precision, it is safe to assume XOR and == take constant time regardless of their value ( because its infinite width, it will have infinite 0 padding. Obviously this doesn't exist. But also, changing 000000 to 000100 is not increasing memory usage.
Yet on some machines , ( 1 << 32 ) << 1 will consume more memory, but how much is uncertain.
A C version of Kent Fredric's Ruby solution
(to facilitate testing)
Counter-example (for C version): {8, 33, 27, 30, 9, 2, 35, 7, 26, 32, 2, 23, 0, 13, 1, 6, 31, 3, 28, 4, 5, 18, 12, 2, 9, 14, 17, 21, 19, 22, 15, 20, 24, 11, 10, 16, 25}. Here n=0, m=35. This sequence misses 34 and has two 2.
It is an O(m) in time and O(1) in space solution.
Out-of-range values are easily detected in O(n) in time and O(1) in space, therefore tests are concentrated on in-range (means all values are in the valid range [n, n+m)) sequences. Otherwise {1, 34} is a counter example (for C version, sizeof(int)==4, standard binary representation of numbers).
The main difference between C and Ruby version:
<< operator will rotate values in C due to a finite sizeof(int),
but in Ruby numbers will grow to accomodate the result e.g.,
Ruby: 1 << 100 # -> 1267650600228229401496703205376
C: int n = 100; 1 << n // -> 16
In Ruby: check_index ^= 1 << i; is equivalent to check_index.setbit(i). The same effect could be implemented in C++: vector<bool> v(m); v[i] = true;
bool isperm_fredric(int m; int a[m], int m, int n)
{
/**
O(m) in time (single pass), O(1) in space,
no restriction on n,
?overflow?
a[] may be readonly
*/
int check_index = 0;
int check_value = 0;
int min = a[0];
for (int i = 0; i < m; ++i) {
check_index ^= 1 << i;
check_value ^= 1 << (a[i] - n); //
if (a[i] < min)
min = a[i];
}
check_index <<= min - n; // min and n may differ e.g.,
// {1, 1}: min=1, but n may be 0.
return check_index == check_value;
}
Values of the above function were tested against the following code:
bool *seen_isperm_trusted = NULL;
bool isperm_trusted(int m; int a[m], int m, int n)
{
/** O(m) in time, O(m) in space */
for (int i = 0; i < m; ++i) // could be memset(s_i_t, 0, m*sizeof(*s_i_t));
seen_isperm_trusted[i] = false;
for (int i = 0; i < m; ++i) {
if (a[i] < n or a[i] >= n + m)
return false; // out of range
if (seen_isperm_trusted[a[i]-n])
return false; // duplicates
else
seen_isperm_trusted[a[i]-n] = true;
}
return true; // a[] is a permutation of the range: [n, n+m)
}
Input arrays are generated with:
void backtrack(int m; int a[m], int m, int nitems)
{
/** generate all permutations with repetition for the range [0, m) */
if (nitems == m) {
(void)test_array(a, nitems, 0); // {0, 0}, {0, 1}, {1, 0}, {1, 1}
}
else for (int i = 0; i < m; ++i) {
a[nitems] = i;
backtrack(a, m, nitems + 1);
}
}
The Answer from "nickf" dows not work if the array is unsorted
var_dump(testArray(array(5, 3, 1, 2, 4), 1, 5)); //gives "duplicates" !!!!
Also your formula to compute sum([n...n+m-1]) looks incorrect....
the correct formula is (m(m+1)/2 - n(n-1)/2)
An array contains N numbers, and you want to determine whether two of the
numbers sum to a given number K. For instance, if the input is 8,4, 1,6 and K is 10,
the answer is yes (4 and 6). A number may be used twice. Do the following.
a. Give an O(N2) algorithm to solve this problem.
b. Give an O(N log N) algorithm to solve this problem. (Hint: Sort the items first.
After doing so, you can solve the problem in linear time.)
c. Code both solutions and compare the running times of your algorithms.
4.
Product of m consecutive numbers is divisible by m! [ m factorial ]
so in one pass you can compute the product of the m numbers, also compute m! and see if the product modulo m ! is zero at the end of the pass
I might be missing something but this is what comes to my mind ...
something like this in python
my_list1 = [9,5,8,7,6]
my_list2 = [3,5,4,7]
def consecutive(my_list):
count = 0
prod = fact = 1
for num in my_list:
prod *= num
count +=1
fact *= count
if not prod % fact:
return 1
else:
return 0
print consecutive(my_list1)
print consecutive(my_list2)
HotPotato ~$ python m_consecutive.py
1
0
I propose the following:
Choose a finite set of prime numbers P_1,P_2,...,P_K, and compute the occurrences of the elements in the input sequence (minus the minimum) modulo each P_i. The pattern of a valid sequence is known.
For example for a sequence of 17 elements, modulo 2 we must have the profile: [9 8], modulo 3: [6 6 5], modulo 5: [4 4 3 3 3], etc.
Combining the test using several bases we obtain a more and more precise probabilistic test. Since the entries are bounded by the integer size, there exists a finite base providing an exact test. This is similar to probabilistic pseudo primality tests.
S_i is an int array of size P_i, initially filled with 0, i=1..K
M is the length of the input sequence
Mn = INT_MAX
Mx = INT_MIN
for x in the input sequence:
for i in 1..K: S_i[x % P_i]++ // count occurrences mod Pi
Mn = min(Mn,x) // update min
Mx = max(Mx,x) // and max
if Mx-Mn != M-1: return False // Check bounds
for i in 1..K:
// Check profile mod P_i
Q = M / P_i
R = M % P_i
Check S_i[(Mn+j) % P_i] is Q+1 for j=0..R-1 and Q for j=R..P_i-1
if this test fails, return False
return True
Any contiguous array [ n, n+1, ..., n+m-1 ] can be mapped on to a 'base' interval [ 0, 1, ..., m ] using the modulo operator. For each i in the interval, there is exactly one i%m in the base interval and vice versa.
Any contiguous array also has a 'span' m (maximum - minimum + 1) equal to it's size.
Using these facts, you can create an "encountered" boolean array of same size containing all falses initially, and while visiting the input array, put their related "encountered" elements to true.
This algorithm is O(n) in space, O(n) in time, and checks for duplicates.
def contiguous( values )
#initialization
encountered = Array.new( values.size, false )
min, max = nil, nil
visited = 0
values.each do |v|
index = v % encountered.size
if( encountered[ index ] )
return "duplicates";
end
encountered[ index ] = true
min = v if min == nil or v < min
max = v if max == nil or v > max
visited += 1
end
if ( max - min + 1 != values.size ) or visited != values.size
return "hole"
else
return "contiguous"
end
end
tests = [
[ false, [ 2,4,5,6 ] ],
[ false, [ 10,11,13,14 ] ] ,
[ true , [ 20,21,22,23 ] ] ,
[ true , [ 19,20,21,22,23 ] ] ,
[ true , [ 20,21,22,23,24 ] ] ,
[ false, [ 20,21,22,23,24+5 ] ] ,
[ false, [ 2,2,3,4,5 ] ]
]
tests.each do |t|
result = contiguous( t[1] )
if( t[0] != ( result == "contiguous" ) )
puts "Failed Test : " + t[1].to_s + " returned " + result
end
end
I like Greg Hewgill's idea of Radix sorting. To find duplicates, you can sort in O(N) time given the constraints on the values in this array.
For an in-place O(1) space O(N) time that restores the original ordering of the list, you don't have to do an actual swap on that number; you can just mark it with a flag:
//Java: assumes all numbers in arr > 1
boolean checkArrayConsecutiveRange(int[] arr) {
// find min/max
int min = arr[0]; int max = arr[0]
for (int i=1; i<arr.length; i++) {
min = (arr[i] < min ? arr[i] : min);
max = (arr[i] > max ? arr[i] : max);
}
if (max-min != arr.length) return false;
// flag and check
boolean ret = true;
for (int i=0; i<arr.length; i++) {
int targetI = Math.abs(arr[i])-min;
if (arr[targetI] < 0) {
ret = false;
break;
}
arr[targetI] = -arr[targetI];
}
for (int i=0; i<arr.length; i++) {
arr[i] = Math.abs(arr[i]);
}
return ret;
}
Storing the flags inside the given array is kind of cheating, and doesn't play well with parallelization. I'm still trying to think of a way to do it without touching the array in O(N) time and O(log N) space. Checking against the sum and against the sum of least squares (arr[i] - arr.length/2.0)^2 feels like it might work. The one defining characteristic we know about a 0...m array with no duplicates is that it's uniformly distributed; we should just check that.
Now if only I could prove it.
I'd like to note that the solution above involving factorial takes O(N) space to store the factorial itself. N! > 2^N, which takes N bytes to store.
Oops! I got caught up in a duplicate question and did not see the already identical solutions here. And I thought I'd finally done something original! Here is a historical archive of when I was slightly more pleased:
Well, I have no certainty if this algorithm satisfies all conditions. In fact, I haven't even validated that it works beyond a couple test cases I have tried. Even if my algorithm does have problems, hopefully my approach sparks some solutions.
This algorithm, to my knowledge, works in constant memory and scans the array three times. Perhaps an added bonus is that it works for the full range of integers, if that wasn't part of the original problem.
I am not much of a pseudo-code person, and I really think the code might simply make more sense than words. Here is an implementation I wrote in PHP. Take heed of the comments.
function is_permutation($ints) {
/* Gather some meta-data. These scans can
be done simultaneously */
$lowest = min($ints);
$length = count($ints);
$max_index = $length - 1;
$sort_run_count = 0;
/* I do not have any proof that running this sort twice
will always completely sort the array (of course only
intentionally happening if the array is a permutation) */
while ($sort_run_count < 2) {
for ($i = 0; $i < $length; ++$i) {
$dest_index = $ints[$i] - $lowest;
if ($i == $dest_index) {
continue;
}
if ($dest_index > $max_index) {
return false;
}
if ($ints[$i] == $ints[$dest_index]) {
return false;
}
$temp = $ints[$dest_index];
$ints[$dest_index] = $ints[$i];
$ints[$i] = $temp;
}
++$sort_run_count;
}
return true;
}
So there is an algorithm that takes O(n^2) that does not require modifying the input array and takes constant space.
First, assume that you know n and m. This is a linear operation, so it does not add any additional complexity. Next, assume there exists one element equal to n and one element equal to n+m-1 and all the rest are in [n, n+m). Given that, we can reduce the problem to having an array with elements in [0, m).
Now, since we know that the elements are bounded by the size of the array, we can treat each element as a node with a single link to another element; in other words, the array describes a directed graph. In this directed graph, if there are no duplicate elements, every node belongs to a cycle, that is, a node is reachable from itself in m or less steps. If there is a duplicate element, then there exists one node that is not reachable from itself at all.
So, to detect this, you walk the entire array from start to finish and determine if each element returns to itself in <=m steps. If any element is not reachable in <=m steps, then you have a duplicate and can return false. Otherwise, when you finish visiting all elements, you can return true:
for (int start_index= 0; start_index<m; ++start_index)
{
int steps= 1;
int current_element_index= arr[start_index];
while (steps<m+1 && current_element_index!=start_index)
{
current_element_index= arr[current_element_index];
++steps;
}
if (steps>m)
{
return false;
}
}
return true;
You can optimize this by storing additional information:
Record sum of the length of the cycle from each element, unless the cycle visits an element before that element, call it sum_of_steps.
For every element, only step m-sum_of_steps nodes out. If you don't return to the starting element and you don't visit an element before the starting element, you have found a loop containing duplicate elements and can return false.
This is still O(n^2), e.g. {1, 2, 3, 0, 5, 6, 7, 4}, but it's a little bit faster.
ciphwn has it right. It is all to do with statistics. What the question is asking is, in statistical terms, is whether or not the sequence of numbers form a discrete uniform distribution. A discrete uniform distribution is where all values of a finite set of possible values are equally probable. Fortunately there are some useful formulas to determine if a discrete set is uniform. Firstly, to determine the mean of the set (a..b) is (a+b)/2 and the variance is (n.n-1)/12. Next, determine the variance of the given set:
variance = sum [i=1..n] (f(i)-mean).(f(i)-mean)/n
and then compare with the expected variance. This will require two passes over the data, once to determine the mean and again to calculate the variance.
References:
uniform discrete distribution
variance
Here is a solution in O(N) time and O(1) extra space for finding duplicates :-
public static boolean check_range(int arr[],int n,int m) {
for(int i=0;i<m;i++) {
arr[i] = arr[i] - n;
if(arr[i]>=m)
return(false);
}
System.out.println("In range");
int j=0;
while(j<m) {
System.out.println(j);
if(arr[j]<m) {
if(arr[arr[j]]<m) {
int t = arr[arr[j]];
arr[arr[j]] = arr[j] + m;
arr[j] = t;
if(j==arr[j]) {
arr[j] = arr[j] + m;
j++;
}
}
else return(false);
}
else j++;
}
Explanation:-
Bring number to range (0,m-1) by arr[i] = arr[i] - n if out of range return false.
for each i check if arr[arr[i]] is unoccupied that is it has value less than m
if so swap(arr[i],arr[arr[i]]) and arr[arr[i]] = arr[arr[i]] + m to signal that it is occupied
if arr[j] = j and simply add m and increment j
if arr[arr[j]] >=m means it is occupied hence current value is duplicate hence return false.
if arr[j] >= m then skip

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