How to overcome "iif" limitations with subqueries? - sql-server

I have 2 tables (A and B). I want to implement such logic to table B:
[Bank] AS (iif( Some_Statement,
(SELECT [Money] FROM [ATM] WHERE [B].[Currency] = [A].[Currency] ),
[NoMoney]
)
)
I get an error: Subqueries are not allowed in this context. Only scalar expressions are allowed.
Is there a way to implement such logic on creation of the tables? It doesn't look hard.

After reading the discussion in comments I get the feeling, that this was going the wrong direction. Might be because of your very direct question about IIF()...
If I get this correctly you try to add a computed column to you table. Something along this:
DECLARE #tblTest TABLE (ID INT IDENTITY
,SomeValue VARCHAR(100)
,[Test] AS IIF(SomeValue IS NOT NULL, CONCAT(SomeValue,'Blah'), 'Default if null'));
INSERT INTO #tblTest(SomeValue) VALUES('Test');
INSERT INTO #tblTest(SomeValue) VALUES(NULL);
SELECT * FROM #tblTest;
The result
ID SomeValue Test
1 Test TestBlah
2 NULL Default if null
Now you want to get the value for the computed column not just from some simple scalar computation, but you want to pick it from a table.
Here I will try to simulate your issue. Next time it is up to you to do this yourself. Providing DDL, sample data and the expected output together with your own attempts is the best chance to get the answer you are waiting for.
This is the table B from where you want to get the value.
Later we will ask for 'Test' and not for 'xyz'.
CREATE TABLE tblB (ID INT IDENTITY
,SomeResultColumn VARCHAR(100)
,SomeConditionColumn VARCHAR(100));
INSERT INTO tblB(SomeResultColumn,SomeConditionColumn) VALUES('not wanted','xyz')
,('wanted','Test');
GO
--This is what you are trying to do, but I out-commented it because of the error you've got.
--A computed column does not allow for a SELECT. This is not bound to the IIF()
--CREATE TABLE tblA (ID INT IDENTITY
-- ,SomeValue VARCHAR(100)
-- ,[Test] AS IIF(SomeValue IS NOT NULL,(SELECT b.SomeResultColumn FROM tblB b WHERE b.SomeConditionColumn=SomeValue),'Default if null'));
--GO
--But what we can do - and the error message is telling so - provide a scalar expression:
--A Scalar Function is exactly this:
CREATE FUNCTION dbo.GetMyComputedColumn(#Condition VARCHAR(100))
RETURNS VARCHAR(100) AS
BEGIN
RETURN (SELECT b.SomeResultColumn --You might use `TOP 1` to ensure a scalar result
FROM tblB b
WHERE b.SomeConditionColumn=#Condition);
END
GO
--We can use this function in the IIF():
CREATE TABLE tblA (ID INT IDENTITY
,SomeValue VARCHAR(100)
,[Test] AS IIF(SomeValue IS NOT NULL,dbo.GetMyComputedColumn(SomeValue),'Default if null'));
GO
INSERT INTO tblA(SomeValue) VALUES('Test');
INSERT INTO tblA(SomeValue) VALUES(NULL);
SELECT * FROM tblA;
The result
ID SomeValue Test
1 Test wanted
2 NULL Default if null
Should you do this?
The question, if this is a good idea, is something completely different.
Besides the fact, that scalar functions are known as bad performers, the main question is: WHY?
Do you need a persistant default value? In this case a trigger will be a better choice... Or you can use an insert statement with the computed value directly. I'm afraid you are mixing the concepts of computed columns and a default constraint. The computed column cannot be changed...
If you want to compute this value whenever you fetch data from this table, it was much better to use a VIEW or an iTVF, where you simply join the needed value to your result set.

If what you are saying is that you want a value from table "B" IF it matches on a value from your main table "A" and if there is no matching value in "B", use a literal as a default, try this:
select
Bank,
coalesce( (SELECT Money FROM ATM WHERE Currency = A.Currency), 'NoMoney' ) as 'Type'
from
ATM A
where
....
If the select of [Money] returns null, the literal 'NoMoney' will be used.
If need be, you can have a select on both sides of the coalesce, the right need not be a literal.

Related

Function to check value and returns result

I need to create function in SQL to check data in variables or parameters as below
#Category as varchar(50)='ABC,DEF'
#Value as varchar(50)='1,2'
And compare #Category value with Category in table then return value matching from parameter
JOB TABLE ---
JOB CATEGORY
123 ABC
234 DEF
234 SSS
Select JobNo,FUNCTION(#Category,#Value,CATEGORY) from JOB
FINAL RESULTS
JOB VALUE
123 1
234 2
234 0
If category match then return value from parameter else return 0.
If you can't use a static lookup table as mentioned in the comments (for example, perhaps the mapping needs to be dynamic based on data supplied by the application), then this looks like a job for a table valued parameter.
Right now you have two parameters, but it seems to me that the values in the parameters are related. That is to say, right now you have #category = 'ABC,DEF' and #value = '1,2', but I think you intend each "element" in the comma delimited set of "categories" to associate with the "element" in the comma delimiited set of "values" that is in the same position.
Right now the design is brittle, because what would happen if I use parameters like this: #category = 'ABC,DEF,GHI,JKL', #value = '1'?
So, you can make your code more durable, and use the sort of "join-based" lookup table solution being recommended to you in the comments, by using a function that takes a table valued parameter argument. To do this, you first have to create the table valued parameter as a type in your database. We then accept a parameter of that type, and join onto it. In the solution below I have "guessed" at datatypes for category and value that seem reasonable based on the sample data in your question.
Also, I've kept the "structure" of your solution - ie, the function is written in such a way that it can be "applied" against every row in jobs, individually. We don't have to do it this way. We could instead just do the whole query inside the function (ie, including the join to the job table), but perhaps you want to use the function against other tables that also have a cateogry column? I won't try to second guess the overall design here. But I will switch the function to an inline table valued function (which returns one row with one column) rather than a scalar function, for performance reasons.
-- schema and data to match your question
create table dbo.job (job int, category char(3));
insert dbo.job(job, category) values (123, 'ABC'), (234, 'DEF'), (234, 'SSS');
go
-- solution
create type dbo.CategoryValues as table
(
category char(3) unique,
[value] int
);
go
create or alter function dbo.MapCategory(#category char(3), #map dbo.CategoryValues readonly)
returns table as return
(
select [value] from #map where category = #category
);
go
-- to call the function we need to pass a parameter of type
-- dbo.CategoryValues with the mappings we desire
declare #map dbo.CategoryValues;
insert #map values ('ABC', 1), ('DEF', 2)
-- outer apply the function to each row in the job table.
select j.job, [value] = isnull(v.[value], 0)
from dbo.job j
outer apply dbo.MapCategory(j.category, #map) v

T-SQL Increment Id after Insert

I'm currently working on a stored procedure in SQL Server 2012 using T-SQL. My problem: I have several SWOTs (e.g. for a specific client) holding several SWOTParts (strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats). I store the values in a table Swot as well as in another table SwotPart.
My foreign Key link is SwotId in SwotPart, thus 1 Swot can hold N SwotParts. Hence, I store the SwotId in every SwotPart.
I can have many Swots and now need to set the SwotId correctly to create the foreign key. I set the SwotId using SCOPE_IDENTITY() unfortunately it only takes the last SwotId from the DB.I'm looking for something like a for loop to increment the SwotId after each insert on the 1st insert.
DECLARE #SwotId INT = 1;
-- 1st insert
SET NOCOUNT ON
INSERT INTO [MySchema].[SWOT]([SwotTypeId]) // Type can be e.g. a sepcific client
SELECT SwotTypeId
FROM #SWOTS
SET #SwotId = SCOPE_IDENTITY(); // currently e.g. 7, but should increment: 1, 2, 3...
-- 2nd insert
SET NOCOUNT ON
INSERT INTO [MySchema].[SwotPart]([SwotId], [FieldTypeId], [Label]) // FieldType can be e.g. Streangh
SELECT #SwotId, FieldTypeId, Label
FROM #SWOTPARTS
Do you know how to solve this issue? What could I use instead of SCOPE_IDENTITY()?
Thank you very much!
You can output the inserted rows into a temporary table, then join your #swotparts to the temporary table based on the natural key (whatever unique column set ties them together beyond the SwotId). This would solve the problem with resorting to loops or cursors, while also overcoming the obstacle of doing a single swot at a time.
set nocount, xact_abort on;
create table #swot (SwotId int, SwotTypeId int);
insert into MySchema.swot (SwotTypeId)
output inserted.SwotId, inserted.SwotTypeId into #swot
select SwotTypeId
from #swots;
insert into MySchema.SwotPart(SwotId, FieldTypeId, Label)
select s.SwotId, p.FieldTypeId, p.Label
from #swotparts p
inner join #swot s
on p.SwotTypeId = p.SwotTypeId;
Unfortunately I cant comment so I`ll leave you an answer hopefully to clarify some things:
Since you need to create the correct foreign key I don`t understand
why do you need to increment a value instead of using the id inserted
into the SWOT table.
I suggest returning the inserted id using the SCOPE_IDENTITY right after the insert statement and use it for you insert into the swot parts (there is plenty of info about it and how to use it)
DECLARE #SwotId INT;
-- 1st insert
INSERT INTO [MySchema].[SWOT]([SwotTypeId]) // Type can be e.g. a sepcific client
SET #SwotId = SCOPE_IDENTITY();
-- 2nd insert
INSERT INTO [MySchema].[SwotPart]([SwotId], [FieldTypeId], [Label])
SELECT #SwotId, FieldTypeId, Label
FROM #SWOTPARTS

SEQUENCE in SQL Server 2008 R2

I need to know if there is any way to have a SEQUENCE or something like that, as we have in Oracle. The idea is to get one number and then use it as a key to save some records in a table. Each time we need to save data in that table, first we get the next number from the sequence and then we use the same to save some records. Is not an IDENTITY column.
For example:
[ID] [SEQUENCE ID] [Code] [Value]
1 1 A 232
2 1 B 454
3 1 C 565
Next time someone needs to add records, the next SEQUENCE ID should be 2, is there any way to do it? the sequence could be a guid for me as well.
As Guillelon points out, the best way to do this in SQL Server is with an identity column.
You can simply define a column as being identity. When a new row is inserted, the identity is automatically incremented.
The difference is that the identity is updated on every row, not just some rows. To be honest, think this is a much better approach. Your example suggests that you are storing both an entity and detail in the same table.
The SequenceId should be the primary identity key in another table. This value can then be used for insertion into this table.
This can be done using multiple ways, Following is what I can think of
Creating a trigger and there by computing the possible value
Adding a computed column along with a function that retrieves the next value of the sequence
Here is an article that presents various solutions
One possible way is to do something like this:
-- Example 1
DECLARE #Var INT
SET #Var = Select Max(ID) + 1 From tbl;
INSERT INTO tbl VALUES (#var,'Record 1')
INSERT INTO tbl VALUES (#var,'Record 2')
INSERT INTO tbl VALUES (#var,'Record 3')
-- Example 2
INSERT INTO #temp VALUES (1,2)
INSERT INTO #temp VALUES (1,2)
INSERT INTO ActualTable (col1, col2, sequence)
SELECT temp.*, (SELECT MAX(ID) + 1 FROM ActualTable)
FROM #temp temp
-- Example 3
DECLARE #var int
INSERT INTO ActualTable (col1, col2, sequence) OUTPUT #var = inserted.sequence VALUES (1, 2, (SELECT MAX(ID) + 1 FROM ActualTable))
The first two examples rely on batch updating. But based on your comment, I have added example 3 which is a single input initially. You can then use the sequence that was inserted to insert the rest of the records. If you have never used an output, please reply in comments and I will expand further.
I would isolate all of the above inside of a transactions.
If you were using SQL Server 2012, you could use the SEQUENCE operator as shown here.
Forgive me if syntax errors, don't have SSMS installed

INSERT+SELECT with a unique key

The following T-SQL statement does not work because [key] has to be unique and the MAX call in the SELECT statement only seems to be called once. In other words it is only incrementing the key value once and and trying to insert that value over and over. Does anyone have a solution?
INSERT INTO [searchOC].[dbo].[searchTable]
([key],
dataVaultType,
dataVaultKey,
searchTerm)
SELECT (SELECT MAX([key]) + 1 FROM [searchOC].[dbo].[searchTable]) AS [key]
,'PERSON' as dataVaultType
,[student_id] as dataVaultKey
,[email] as searchTerm
FROM [JACOB].[myoc4Data].[dbo].[users]
WHERE [email] != '' AND [active] = '1'
AND [student_id] IN (SELECT [userID] FROM [JACOB].[myoc4Data].[dbo].[userRoles]
WHERE ([role] = 'STUDENT' OR [role] = 'FACUTLY' OR [role] = 'STAFF'))
If you can make the key column an IDENTITY column that would probably be the easiest. That allows SQL Server to generate incremental values.
Alternatively, if you are definite about finding your own way to generate the key then a blog post I wrote last month may help. Although it uses a composite key, it shows you what you need to do to stop the issue with inserting multiple rows in a single INSERT statement safely generating a new value for each new row and it is also safe across many simultaneous writers (which many examples don't deal with)
http://colinmackay.co.uk/2012/12/29/composite-primary-keys-including-identity-like-column/
Incidentally, the reason that you get the same value for MAX(Key) on each row in your SELECT is that this happens at the time the table is read from. So for all the rows that the SELECT statement returns the MAX(key) will always be the same. Unless you add some sort of GROUP BY clause for any SELECT statement any MAX(columnName) function will return the same value for each row returned.
Also, all aggregate functions are deterministic, so for each equivalent set of input it will always have the same output. So if your set of keys was 1, 5, 9 then it will always return 9.

Update a part of column value in SQL Server

I have a database in SQL Server with its data. I need change a part of some columns value in some conditions.
Imagine the value as "0010020001".
002 belongs to another value in my database and whenever I want to change it to 005, I must update the previous 10-digits code to "001005001".
Actually, I need to update just a part of columns value using UPDATE statement. How can I do it (in this example)?
While everyone else is correct that if you have control of the schema you should definitely not store your data this way, this is how I would solve the issue you as you described it if I couldn't adjust the schema.
IF OBJECT_ID('tempdb..#test') IS NOT NULL
DROP TABLE #test
create table #test
(
id int,
multivaluecolumn varchar(20)
)
insert #Test
select 1,'001002001'
UNION
select 2,'002004002'
UNION
select 3,'003006003'
GO
declare #oldmiddlevalue char(3)
set #oldmiddlevalue= '002'
declare #newmiddlevalue char(3)
set #newmiddlevalue = '005'
select * from #Test
Update #Test set multivaluecolumn =left(multivaluecolumn,3) + #newmiddlevalue + right(multivaluecolumn,3)
where substring(multivaluecolumn,4,3) = #oldmiddlevalue
select * from #Test
Why dont you use CSV(comma separated values) or use any other symbol like ~ to store tha values. Once you need to update a part of it use php explode function and then update it. After your work is done, concat all the values again to get the desired string to be stored in your column.
In that case your column will have values VARCHAR like 001~002~0001

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