Combining some examples, I came up with the following query (fields and table names have been anonymised soI hope I didn't insert typos).
UPDATE destinationTable
SET destinationField = t2.value
FROM destinationTable t1
CROSS APPLY (
SELECT TOP 1 'SomeRequiredPrefix ' + sourceField as value
FROM #sourceTable
WHERE sourceField <> ''
ORDER BY NEWID()
) t2
Problem
Currently, all records get the same value into destinationField , value needs to be random and different. I'm probably missing something here.
Here's a possible solution. Using CTE's assign row numbers to both tables based on random order. Join the tables together using that rownumber and update the rows accordingly.
;WITH
dt AS
(SELECT *, ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY NEWID()) AS RowNum
FROM dbo.destinationtable),
st AS
(SELECT *, ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY NEWID()) AS RowNum
FROM dbo.#sourcetable)
UPDATE dt
SET dt.destinationfield = 'SomeRequiredPrefix ' + st.sourcefield
FROM dt
JOIN st ON dt.RowNum = st.RowNum
UPDATED SOLUTION
I used CROSS JOIN to get all possibilities since you have less rows in source table. Then assign random rownumbers and only take 1 row for each destination field.
;WITH cte
AS
(
SELECT *, ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY destinationfield ORDER BY NEWID()) AS Rownum
FROM destinationtable
CROSS JOIN #sourcetable
WHERE sourcefield <> ''
)
UPDATE cte
SET cte.destinationfield = 'SomeRequiredPrefix ' + sourcefield
WHERE cte.Rownum = 1
SELECT * FROM dbo.destinationtable
Related
I want to update the below table where name is null to repeat the pattern from first 10 rows.
enter image description here
sql:
declare #name varchar(255)
set #name = select distinct name from #temp
update #temp
set name = #name
where name is not null
Obviously the above the query will not work due to multiple values. I want to update the table where it's null to fill with the pattern from above.
While I agree with Damien's suggestion that you not conflate databases and spreadsheets, you can do this quite easily with window functions and the modulo operator:
WITH x AS
(
SELECT dt,
name,
seq = ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY dt),
c = COUNT(*) OVER()
FROM #temp
WHERE name IS NOT NULL
),
y AS
(
SELECT dt,
name,
seq = ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY dt)
FROM #temp WHERE dt > (SELECT MAX(dt) FROM x)
)
UPDATE y SET y.name = x.name
FROM x INNER JOIN y
ON x.seq % x.c = y.seq % x.c;
Working example in this fiddle.
This doesn't validate, though, that the non-null values are all contiguous at the beginning - if you need the query to validate that, it's considerably more complicated.
I am just posting an Answer according to your picture.
I think if you want to use it some where else , then you should change it. (It is not General)
update
t1
set
t1.name = t2.name
from
(
select *,row_number() over (order by dt) - 1 as rn
from
(
select
*
from
tbl1
where
name is not null
)
as a
)
as t1
inner join
(
select
name,
day,
mod(rn, 10) as rn
from
(
select *,row_number() over (order by dt) - 1 as rn
from
(
select
*
from
tbl1
where
name is null
)
as b
)
as tmp
)
as t2
on t1.day = t2.day
and t1.rn = t2.rn
I am stuck with this. I have a simple set-up with two tables. One table is holding emailaddresses one table is holding vouchercodes. I want to join them in a third table, so that each emailaddress has one random vouchercode.
Unfortunatly I am stuck with this as there are no identic Ids to match both values. What I have so far brings no result:
Select
A.Email
B.CouponCode
FROM Emailaddresses as A
JOIN CouponCodes as B
on A.Email = B.CouponCode
A hint would be great as search did not bring me any further yet.
Edit -
Table A (Addresses)
-------------------
Column A | Column B
-------------------------
email1#gmail.com True
email2#gmail.com
email3#gmail.com True
email4#gmail.com
Table B (Voucher)
-------------------
ABCD1234
ABCD5678
ABCD9876
ABCD5432
Table C
-------------------------
column A | column B
-------------------------
email1#gmail.com ABCD1234
email2#gmail.com ABCD5678
email3#gmail.com ABCD9876
email4#gmail.com ABCD5432
Sample Data:
While joining without proper keys is not a good solution, for your case you can try this. (note: not tested, just a quick suggestion)
;with cte_email as (
select row_number() over (order by Email) as rownum, Email
from Emailaddresses
)
;with cte_coupon as (
select row_number() over (order by CouponCode) as rownum, CouponCode
from CouponCodes
)
select a.Email,b.CouponCode
from cte_email a
join cte_coupon b
on a.rownum = b.rownum
You want to randomly join records, one email with one coupon each. So create random row numbers and join on these:
select
e.email,
c.couponcode
from (select t.*, row_number() over (order by newid()) as rn from emailaddresses t) e
join (select t.*, row_number() over (order by newid()) as rn from CouponCodes t) c
on c.rn = e.rn;
Give a row number for both the tables and join it with row number.
Query
;with cte as(
select [rn] = row_number() over(
order by [Column_A]
), *
from [Table_A]
),
cte2 as(
select [rn] = row_number() over(
order by [Column_A]
), *
from [Table_B]
)
select t1.[Column_A] as [Email_Id], t2.[Column_A] as [Coupon]
from cte t1
join cte2 t2
on t1.rn = t2.rn;
Find a demo here
I am putting together a query in SQL Server but having issues with the sub-query
I wish to use the max(loadid) and count the number of records the query returns.
So for example my last loadid is 400 and the amount of records with 400 is 2300, so I would my recor_count column should display 2300. I have tried various ways below but am getting errors.
select count (loadid)
from t1
where loadid = (select max(loadid) from t1) record_count;
(select top 1 LOADID, count(*)
from t1
group by loadid
order by count(*) desc) as Record_Count
Showing loadid and number of matching rows with the use of grouping, ordering by count and limiting the output to 1 row with top.
select top 1 loadid, count(*) as cnt
from t1
group by loadid
order by cnt desc
This may be easier to achieve with a window function in the inner query:
SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM (SELECT RANK() OVER (ORDER BY loadid DESC) AS rk
FROM t1) t
WHERE rk = 1
Another simplest way to achieve the result :
Set Nocount On;
Declare #Test Table
(
Id Int
)
Insert Into #Test(Id) Values
(397),(398),(399),(400)
Declare #Abc Table
(
Id Int
,Value Varchar(100)
)
INsert Into #Abc(Id,Value) Values
(398,'')
,(400,'')
,(397,'')
,(400,'')
,(400,'')
Select a.Id
,Count(a.Value) As RecordCount
From #Abc As a
Join
(
Select Max(t.Id) As Id
From #Test As t
) As v On a.Id = v.Id
Group By a.Id
I have a large set of measurements taken every 1 millisecond stored in a SQL Server 2012 table. Whenever there are 3 or more duplicate values in some rows that I would like to delete the middle duplicates. Highlighted values in this image of sample data are the ones that I want to delete. Is there a way to do this with a SQL query?
You can do this using a CTE and ROW_NUMBER:
SQL Fiddle
WITH CteGroup AS(
SELECT *,
grp = ROW_NUMBER() OVER(ORDER BY MS) - ROW_NUMBER() OVER(PARTITION BY Value ORDER BY MS)
FROM YourTable
),
CteFinal AS(
SELECT *,
RN_FIRST = ROW_NUMBER() OVER(PARTITION BY grp, Value ORDER BY MS),
RN_LAST = ROW_NUMBER() OVER(PARTITION BY grp, Value ORDER BY MS DESC)
FROM CteGroup
)
DELETE
FROM CteFinal
WHERE
RN_FIRST > 1
AND RN_LAST > 1
I'm sure there must be a more efficient way to do this, but you could join the table to itself twice to find the previous and next value in the list, and then delete all of the entries where all three values are the same.
DELETE FROM tbl
WHERE ms IN
(
SELECT T.ms
FROM tbl T
INNER JOIN tbl T1 ON T.ms = T1.ms + 1
INNER JOIN tbl T2 ON T.ms = T2.ms - 1
WHERE T.value = T1.value AND T.value = T2.value
)
If the table is really big, I can see this blowing tempdb though.
Yes there is
select * from table group by table.field ->value
I want to update my column CODE_DEST with an incremental number. I have:
CODE_DEST RS_NOM
null qsdf
null sdfqsdfqsdf
null qsdfqsdf
I would like to update it to be:
CODE_DEST RS_NOM
1 qsdf
2 sdfqsdfqsdf
3 qsdfqsdf
I have tried this code:
UPDATE DESTINATAIRE_TEMP
SET CODE_DEST = TheId
FROM (SELECT Row_Number() OVER (ORDER BY [RS_NOM]) AS TheId FROM DESTINATAIRE_TEMP)
This does not work because of the )
I have also tried:
WITH DESTINATAIRE_TEMP AS
(
SELECT
ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY [RS_NOM] DESC) AS RN
FROM DESTINATAIRE_TEMP
)
UPDATE DESTINATAIRE_TEMP SET CODE_DEST=RN
But this also does not work because of union.
How can I update a column using the ROW_NUMBER() function in SQL Server 2008 R2?
One more option
UPDATE x
SET x.CODE_DEST = x.New_CODE_DEST
FROM (
SELECT CODE_DEST, ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY [RS_NOM]) AS New_CODE_DEST
FROM DESTINATAIRE_TEMP
) x
DECLARE #id INT
SET #id = 0
UPDATE DESTINATAIRE_TEMP
SET #id = CODE_DEST = #id + 1
GO
try this
http://www.mssqltips.com/sqlservertip/1467/populate-a-sql-server-column-with-a-sequential-number-not-using-an-identity/
With UpdateData As
(
SELECT RS_NOM,
ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY [RS_NOM] DESC) AS RN
FROM DESTINATAIRE_TEMP
)
UPDATE DESTINATAIRE_TEMP SET CODE_DEST = RN
FROM DESTINATAIRE_TEMP
INNER JOIN UpdateData ON DESTINATAIRE_TEMP.RS_NOM = UpdateData.RS_NOM
Your second attempt failed primarily because you named the CTE same as the underlying table and made the CTE look as if it was a recursive CTE, because it essentially referenced itself. A recursive CTE must have a specific structure which requires the use of the UNION ALL set operator.
Instead, you could just have given the CTE a different name as well as added the target column to it:
With SomeName As
(
SELECT
CODE_DEST,
ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY [RS_NOM] DESC) AS RN
FROM DESTINATAIRE_TEMP
)
UPDATE SomeName SET CODE_DEST=RN
This is a modified version of #Aleksandr Fedorenko's answer adding a WHERE clause:
UPDATE x
SET x.CODE_DEST = x.New_CODE_DEST
FROM (
SELECT CODE_DEST, ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY [RS_NOM]) AS New_CODE_DEST
FROM DESTINATAIRE_TEMP
) x
WHERE x.CODE_DEST <> x.New_CODE_DEST AND x.CODE_DEST IS NOT NULL
By adding a WHERE clause I found the performance improved massively for subsequent updates. Sql Server seems to update the row even if the value already exists and it takes time to do so, so adding the where clause makes it just skip over rows where the value hasn't changed. I have to say I was astonished as to how fast it could run my query.
Disclaimer: I'm no DB expert, and I'm using PARTITION BY for my clause so it may not be exactly the same results for this query. For me the column in question is a customer's paid order, so the value generally doesn't change once it is set.
Also make sure you have indexes, especially if you have a WHERE clause on the SELECT statement. A filtered index worked great for me as I was filtering based on payment statuses.
My query using PARTITION by
UPDATE UpdateTarget
SET PaidOrderIndex = New_PaidOrderIndex
FROM
(
SELECT PaidOrderIndex, SimpleMembershipUserName, ROW_NUMBER() OVER(PARTITION BY SimpleMembershipUserName ORDER BY OrderId) AS New_PaidOrderIndex
FROM [Order]
WHERE PaymentStatusTypeId in (2,3,6) and SimpleMembershipUserName is not null
) AS UpdateTarget
WHERE UpdateTarget.PaidOrderIndex <> UpdateTarget.New_PaidOrderIndex AND UpdateTarget.PaidOrderIndex IS NOT NULL
-- test to 'break' some of the rows, and then run the UPDATE again
update [order] set PaidOrderIndex = 2 where PaidOrderIndex=3
The 'IS NOT NULL' part isn't required if the column isn't nullable.
When I say the performance increase was massive I mean it was essentially instantaneous when updating a small number of rows. With the right indexes I was able to achieve an update that took the same amount of time as the 'inner' query does by itself:
SELECT PaidOrderIndex, SimpleMembershipUserName, ROW_NUMBER() OVER(PARTITION BY SimpleMembershipUserName ORDER BY OrderId) AS New_PaidOrderIndex
FROM [Order]
WHERE PaymentStatusTypeId in (2,3,6) and SimpleMembershipUserName is not null
I did this for my situation and worked
WITH myUpdate (id, myRowNumber )
AS
(
SELECT id, ROW_NUMBER() over (order by ID) As myRowNumber
FROM AspNetUsers
WHERE UserType='Customer'
)
update AspNetUsers set EmployeeCode = FORMAT(myRowNumber,'00000#')
FROM myUpdate
left join AspNetUsers u on u.Id=myUpdate.id
Simple and easy way to update the cursor
UPDATE Cursor
SET Cursor.CODE = Cursor.New_CODE
FROM (
SELECT CODE, ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY [CODE]) AS New_CODE
FROM Table Where CODE BETWEEN 1000 AND 1999
) Cursor
If table does not have relation, just copy all in new table with row number and remove old and rename new one with old one.
Select RowNum = ROW_NUMBER() OVER(ORDER BY(SELECT NULL)) , * INTO cdm.dbo.SALES2018 from
(
select * from SALE2018) as SalesSource
In my case I added a new column and wanted to update it with the equevilat record number for the whole table
id name new_column (ORDER_NUM)
1 Ali null
2 Ahmad null
3 Mohammad null
4 Nour null
5 Hasan null
6 Omar null
I wrote this query to have the new column populated with the row number
UPDATE My_Table
SET My_Table.ORDER_NUM = SubQuery.rowNumber
FROM (
SELECT id ,ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY [id]) AS rowNumber
FROM My_Table
) SubQuery
INNER JOIN My_Table ON
SubQuery.id = My_Table.id
after executing this query I had 1,2,3,... numbers in my new column
I update a temp table with the first occurrence of part where multiple parts can be associated with a sequence number. RowId=1 returns the first occurence which I join the tmp table and data using part and sequence number.
update #Tmp
set
#Tmp.Amount=#Amount
from
(SELECT Part, Row_Number() OVER (ORDER BY [Part]) AS RowId FROM #Tmp
where Sequence_Num=#Sequence_Num
)data
where data.Part=#Tmp.Part
and data.RowId=1
and #Tmp.Sequence_Num=#Sequence_Num
I don't have a running ID in order to do what "Basheer AL-MOMANI" suggested.
I did something like this: (joined my table on myself, just to get the Row Number)
update T1 set inID = T2.RN
from (select *, ROW_NUMBER() over (order by ID) RN from MyTable) T1
inner join (select *, ROW_NUMBER() over (order by ID) RN from MyTable) T2 on T2.RN = T1.RN