Good morning,
I have been searching all over google for an answer to this so was wondering if anyone could help me out? Basically I have a database table, which consolidates keywords for example: dog, cat, horse, mouse. This is displayed as a result. However I need to create some SQL to say if two of those keywords exists, e.g horse and cat, then display these results. This would then allow us to go down X route.
Another example or issue which is a work around is to have a list of keywords, and then store this as a value, this would mean if someone typed in: my dog is violently attacking neighbours cats, it would detect dog and cat and would bring the user to a specific outcome..
declare #teststring varchar(512) = '{KEYWORD}'
select top 1 k.type
from (values
('pet', '1'), ('dog', '1'), ('cat', '1')
) k(word,type) where #teststring like '%' + k.word + '%'
group by k.type
HAVING COUNT(1) >=2
order by COUNT(1) desc
As you can see this is storing cat, dog and pet. This then means if someone types my pet is a dog then it would go down a conditional route. (We then store the answers people put into {Keyword1}
So my issue here is I am limited to characters I can use in my SQL field. So I have created two lists (one list above with pet cat and dog.). Another list I have has exactly the same but (rabbit, hamster and horse). This is stored in {Keyword2} I want to be able to write some SQL that says if any of the keywords in {Keyword1} and {Keyword2} have been entered to then go down a specific conditional route. so if someone types by rabbit has been attacked by my dog it would detect rabbit and dog and would make this conditional and go down there.
I hope this isn't too confusing? I have thought about nested sql and inner joins but I am not sure this will do what im asking.
I'm not sure where's your problem, you seem to have it already covered, unless, you're having trouble making actionable code?
Maybe do this first:
Dispose of order by COUNT(1) desc,
Change >=2 to >=1,
Add your other keywords after cat with a different number, for example ('cat', '1'), ('keys', '2'), ('shirt', '2'),
Replace top 1 k.type with any placebo, like 1 or 'A',
Then, add this afterwards:
IF ##ROWCOUNT >= 2
/* Do some stuff, because both keywords were used */
The concept is, if you wanna conditionally run some code, you'll usually need IF / ELSE, perhaps sometimes you can instead use TRY / CATCH or loops.
The ##ROWCOUNT isn't the mainstream way of checking in an IF, but it makes do many times, and I wanted to intervene on your code the least amount possible, for now. I might be even not getting you right to begin with.
The changes on your original query were aimed to have it produce an amount of records corresponding to how many keyword groups were found. Later on, that would be contested against ##ROWCOUNT as you have probably seen.
Hope I helped. All of this can be better done for sure, maybe when we can confirm what you're looking for.
If you can store you keywords as tables you can use intersect:
DECLARE #table1 TABLE (KeyWord VARCHAR (100))
DECLARE #table2 TABLE (KeyWord VARCHAR (100))
INSERT INTO #table1
VALUES
('dog'),('rabbit'),('dragon'),('cat')
INSERT INTO #table2
VALUES
('dog'),('rabbit'),('ogre'),('whale')
SELECT KeyWord FROM #table1
INTERSECT
SELECT KeyWord FROM #table2
Related
I'm using SQL Server 2012 Express. I want to create a synonym (or similar inline solution) to substitute in multiple standard column names across many tables.
For example, almost every table in my database has 3 identical columns: ID, DateAdded and TenantID. I want to have a way to select these without having to list them all out every time.
I tried some simple code as below to try to achieve this, but the syntax isn't correct in the create synonym section. I've googled but can't find anything that gives me what I'm after as an inline solution.
So for example, rather than:
SELECT [ID], [DateAdded], [TenantID]
FROM TableName
instead, I hoped to use this code to create a synonym:
CREATE SYNONYM [dbo].[Fields] FOR [ID], [DateAdded], [TenantID]
then I can repeatedly write the query:
SELECT dbo.[Fields] FROM TableName
and have the TableName be different every time.
I need this to work across many tables, so creating a view for each table won't be satisfactory.
Maybe synonyms aren't the right solution, but if not then I'd be happy to hear of some other way that provides an inline solution.
Following the post for a while as the topic seems interesting and a learning opportunity to me :) Not sure this is possible or not, but you can think about Dynamic query execution as an alternative as below-
DECLARE #C_Names VARCHAR(MAX)
DECLARE #T_Name VARCHER(MAX)
SET #C_Names = '[ID], [DateAdded], [TenantID]'
SET #T_Name = 'your_table_name'
--AS column names are fixed, you can now change the table name
--only and execute the script to get your desired output
EXEC('SELECT '+#C_Names+' FROM '+#T_Name+'')
Hope this will at least give you some light of hope.
I'm having an issue, whereby I need to separate the following BPO007 to show BPO and 007. In some cases another example would be GFE0035, whereby I still need to split the numeric value from the characters.
When I do the following select isnumeric('BPO007') the result is 0, which is correct, however, I'm not sure how split these from each other.
I've had a look at this link, but it does not really answer my question.
I need the above split for a separate validation purpose in my trigger.
How would I develop something like this?
Thank you in advance.
As told in a comment before:
About your question How would I develop something like this?:
Do not store two pieces of information within the same column (read about 1.NF). You should keep separate columns in your database for BPO and for 007 (or rather an integer 7).
Then use some string methods to compute the BPO007 when you need it in your output.
Just not to let you alone in the rain.
DECLARE #tbl TABLE(YourColumn VARCHAR(100));
INSERT INTO #tbl VALUES('BPO007'),('GFE0035');
SELECT YourColumn,pos
,LEFT(YourColumn,pos) AS CharPart
,CAST(SUBSTRING(YourColumn,pos+1,1000) AS INT) AS NumPart
FROM #tbl
CROSS APPLY(SELECT PATINDEX('%[0-9]%',YourColumn)-1) AS A(pos);
Will return
YourColumn pos CharPart NumPart
BPO007 3 BPO 7
GFE0035 3 GFE 35
Hint: I use a CROSS APPLY here to compute the position of the first numeric character and then use pos in the actual query like you'd use a variable. Otherwise the PATINDEX would have to be repeated...
Since the number and text varies, you can use the following codes
DECLARE #NUMERIC TABLE (Col VARCHAR(50))
INSERT INTO #NUMERIC VALUES('BPO007'),('GFE0035'),('GFEGVT003509'),('GFEMTS10035')
SELECT
Col,
LEFT(Col,LEN(Col)-LEN(SUBSTRING(Col,PATINDEX('%[0-9]%',Col),DATALENGTH(Col)))) AS TEXTs,
RIGHT(Col,LEN(Col)-LEN(LEFT(Col,LEN(Col)-LEN(SUBSTRING(Col,PATINDEX('%[0-9]%',Col),DATALENGTH(Col)))))) AS NUMERICs
FROM #NUMERIC
Hi I have a login table that has some duplicated username.
Yes I know I should have put a constraint on it, but it's a bit too late for that now!
So essentially what I want to do is to first identify the duplicates. I can't just delete them since I can't be too sure which account is the correct one. The accounts have the same username and both of them have roughly the same information with a few small variances.
Is there any way to efficiently script it so that I can add "_duplicate" to only one of the accounts per duplicate?
You can use ROW_NUMBER with a PARTITION BY in the OVER() clause to find the duplicates and an updateable CTE to change the values accordingly:
DECLARE #dummyTable TABLE(ID INT IDENTITY, UserName VARCHAR(100));
INSERT INTO #dummyTable VALUES('Peter'),('Tom'),('Jane'),('Victoria')
,('Peter') ,('Jane')
,('Peter');
WITH UpdateableCTE AS
(
SELECT t.UserName AS OldValue
,t.UserName + CASE WHEN ROW_NUMBER() OVER(PARTITION BY UserName ORDER BY ID)=1 THEN '' ELSE '_duplicate' END AS NewValue
FROM #dummyTable AS t
)
UPDATE UpdateableCTE SET OldValue = NewValue;
SELECT * FROM #dummyTable;
The result
ID UserName
1 Peter
2 Tom
3 Jane
4 Victoria
5 Peter_duplicate
6 Jane_duplicate
7 Peter_duplicate
You might include ROW_NUMBER() as another column to find the duplicates ordinal. If you've got a sort clause to get the earliest (or must current) numbered with 1 it should be easy to find and correct the duplicates.
Once you've cleaned this mess, you should ensure not to get new dups. But you know this already :-D
There is no easy way to get rid of this nightmare. Some manual actions required.
First identify duplicates.
select * from dbo.users
where userId in
(select userId from dbo.users
group by username
having count(userId) > 1)
Next identify "useless" users (for example those who registered but never place any order).
Rerun the query above. Out of this list find duplicates which are the same (by email for example) and combine them in a single record. If they did something useful previously (for example placed orders) then first assign these orders to a user which survive. Remove others.
Continue with other criteria until you you get rid of duplicates.
Then set unique constrain on username field. Also it is good idea to set unique constraint on email field.
Again, it is not easy and not automatic.
In this case where you duplicates and the original names have some variance it is highly impossible to select non duplicate rows since you are not aware which is real and which is duplicate.
I think the best thing to is to correct you data and then fix from where you are getting this slight variant duplicates.
I've got 2 tables,
'[Item] with field [name] nvarchar(255)
'[Transaction] with field [short_description] nvarchar(3999)
And I need to do thus :
Select [Transaction].id, [Item].id
From [Transaction] inner join [Item]
on [Transaction].[short_description] like ('%' + [Item].[name] + '%')
The above works if limited to a handful of items, but unfiltered is just going over 20 mins and I cancel.
I have a NC index on [name], but I cannot index [short_description] due to its length.
[Transaction] has 320,000 rows
[Items] has 42,000.
That's 13,860,000,000 combinations.
Is there a better way to perform this query ?
I did poke at full-text, but I'm not really that familiar, the answer was not jumping out at me there.
Any advice appreciated !!
Starting a comparison string with a wildcard (% or _) will NEVER use an index, and will typically be disastrous for performance. Your query will need to scan indexes rather than seek through them, so indexing won't help.
Ideally, you should have a third table that would allow a many-to-many relationship between Transaction and Item based on IDs. The design is the issue here.
After some more sleuthing I have utilized some Fulltext features.
sp_fulltext_keymappings
gives me my transaction table id, along with the FT docID
(I found out that 'doc' = text field)
sys.dm_fts_index_keywords_by_document
gives me FT documentId along with the individual keywords within it
Once I had that, the rest was simple.
Although, I do have to look into the term 'keyword' a bit more... seems that definition can be variable.
This only works because the text I am searching for has no white space.
I believe that you could tweak the FTI configuration to work with other scenarios... but I couldn't promise.
I need to look more into Fulltext.
My current 'beta' code below.
CREATE TABLE #keyMap
(
docid INT PRIMARY KEY ,
[key] varchar(32) NOT NULL
);
DECLARE #db_id int = db_id(N'<database name>');
DECLARE #table_id int = OBJECT_ID(N'Transactions');
INSERT INTO #keyMap
EXEC sp_fulltext_keymappings #table_id;
select km.[key] as transaction_id, i.[id] as item_id
from
sys.dm_fts_index_keywords_by_document ( #db_id, #table_id ) kbd
INNER JOIN
#keyMap km ON km.[docid]=kbd.document_id
inner join [items] i
on kdb.[display_term] = i.name
;
My actual version of the code includes inserting the data into a final table.
Execution time is coming in at 30 seconds, which serves my needs for now.
Background
Recently I've started to use XML a lot more as a column in SQL Server 2005. During a bit of downtime yesterday, I noticed that two of the link tables I used a really just in the way and it bores me to tears having to write yet more supporting structure code for a couple of joins.
To actually generate the data for these two link tables, I pass in two XML fields to my stored procedure, which writes the main record, breaks the two XML variables down into #tables and inserts them into the actual tables with the new SCOPE_IDENTITY() from the master record.
After some though, I decided to just do away with those tables altogether and just store the XML in XML fields. Now I understand there are some pitfalls here, like general querying performance, GROUP BY doesn't work on XML data. And the query is generally a bit of a mess, but overall I like that I can now work with XElement when I get the data back.
Also, this stuff isn't going to get changed. It's a one shot affair, so I don't have to worry about modification.
I am wondering about the best way to actually get at this data. A lot of my queries involve getting a master record based upon the criteria of a child or even a subchild record. Most of the sprocs in the database do this but on a far more elaborate scale, usually requiring UDFs and Subqueries to work effectively but I have knocked up a trivial example to test querying some data...
INSERT INTO Customers VALUES ('Tom', '', '<PhoneNumbers><PhoneNumber Type="1" Value="01234 456789" /><PhoneNumber Type="2" Value="01746 482954" /></PhoneNumbers>')
INSERT INTO Customers VALUES ('Andy', '', '<PhoneNumbers><PhoneNumber Type="2" Value="07948 598348" /></PhoneNumbers>')
INSERT INTO Customers VALUES ('Mike', '', '<PhoneNumbers><PhoneNumber Type="3" Value="02875 482945" /></PhoneNumbers>')
INSERT INTO Customers VALUES ('Steve', '', '<PhoneNumbers></PhoneNumbers>')
Now I can see two ways of grabbing it.
Method 1
DECLARE #PhoneType INT
SET #PhoneType = 2
SELECT ct.*
FROM Customers ct
WHERE ct.PhoneNumbers.exist('/PhoneNumbers/PhoneNumber[#Type=sql:variable("#PhoneType")]') = 1
Really? sql:variable feels a bit unwholesome. However, it does work. However it's distinctively more difficult to access data in a more meaningful way.
Method 2
SELECT ct.*, pt.PhoneType
FROM Customers ct
CROSS APPLY ct.PhoneNumbers.nodes('/PhoneNumbers/PhoneNumber') AS nums(pn)
INNER JOIN PhoneTypes pt ON pt.ID = nums.pn.value('./#Type[1]', 'int')
WHERE nums.pn.value('./#Type[1]', 'int') = #PhoneType
This is more like it. Already I can easily expand it to do joins and all other good stuff. I've used CROSS APPLY before on a table valued function, and it was very good. The execution plan for this as opposed to the previous query is seriously more advanced. Admittedly I haven't done any indexing and whatnot on these tables, but it's 97% of the entire batch cost.
Method 2 (expanded)
SELECT ct.ID, ct.CustomerName, ct.Notes, pt.PhoneType
FROM Customers ct
CROSS APPLY ct.PhoneNumbers.nodes('/PhoneNumbers/PhoneNumber') AS nums(pn)
INNER JOIN PhoneTypes pt ON pt.ID = nums.pn.value('./#Type[1]', 'int')
WHERE nums.pn.value('./#Type[1]', 'int') IN (SELECT ID FROM PhoneTypes)
Nice IN clause here. I can also do something like pt.PhoneType = 'Work'
Finally
So I'm essentially obtaining the results that I want, but is there anything I should be aware of when using this mechanism to interrogate small amounts of XML data? Will it fall down on performance during elaborate searches? And is the storage of such markup style data too much of an overhead?
Side note
I've used things like sp_xml_preparedocument and OPENXML in the past just to pass lists into sprocs, but this is like a breath of fresh air in comparison!
One approach we've taken for some of our key items of information stored inside an XML column is to "surface" them as computed, persisted properties on the "parent" table. This is done using a little stored function.
It works great, because the value is computed only once every time the XML changes - as long as it's not changing, there's no recomputation, the value is stored on the table like any other column.
It's also great since it can be indexed! So if you're searching and/or joining on such a field - that works like a charm!
So you basically need a stored function along the lines of this:
CREATE FUNCTION [dbo].[GetPhoneNo1](#DataXML XML)
RETURNS VARCHAR(50)
WITH SCHEMABINDING
AS BEGIN
DECLARE #result VARCHAR(20)
SELECT
#result = #DataXML.value('(/PhoneNumbers/PhoneNumber[#Type="1"]/#Value)[1]', 'VARCHAR(50)')
RETURN #result
END
If you don't have a phone number of type 1, you'll just get back a NULL.
Then, you need to extend your parent table with a computed, persisted column:
ALTER TABLE dbo.Customers
ADD PhoneNumberType1 AS dbo.GetPhoneNo1(PhoneNumbers)
As you can see - it works just fine for single entries, but unfortunately, you cannot surface a whole list of properties. But if you have some key items, like ID's or something, that you expect most of your rows to have, this can be a very nice and slick way to get at that information more easily and more efficiently.