This one is making me crasy : I have an EF model built upon a database that contains a table named Category with 6 rows in it.
I want to display this in a drop down list in WPF, so I need to bind it to the Categories.Local Observable collection.
The problem is that this observable collection never receives the content of the database table. My understanding is that the collection should get in sync with the database when performing a query or saving data with SaveChanges() So I ran the followin 2 tests :
Categories = _db.Categories.Local;
// test 1
Debug.WriteLine(_db.Categories.Count());
Debug.WriteLine(_db.Categories.Local.Count());
// test 2
_categories.Add(new Category() { CategoryName = "test" });
_db.SaveChanges();
Debug.WriteLine(_db.Categories.Count());
Debug.WriteLine(_db.Categories.Local.Count());
Debug.WriteLine(_categories.Count());
The test 1 shows 6 rows in the database, and 0 in local.
The test 2 shows 7 rows in the database, and 1 in local (both versions)
I also atempted to use _db.Category.Load() but as expected, it doesn't work because it is db first, not code first.
I also went through this page https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj574514(v=vs.113).aspx, created an object-based data source and linked my combo box to it, without success.
Does anyone know what I am doing wrong?
Thank you in advance for your help.
The DbSet<T> class is IQueryable<T>, hence DbSet<T>.Count() method maps to Queryable.Count<T> extension method, which in turn is translated to SQL query and returns the count of the records in the database table without loading anything into db context local cache.
While DbSet<T>.Local simply gives you access to the local cache. It contains the entities that you added as well as the ones being loaded by query that returns T instances (or other entities referencing T via navigation property). In order to fully load (populate) the local cache, you need to call Load:
_db.Categories.Load();
The Load is a custom extension method defined in QueryableExtensions class, so you need to include
using System.Data.Entity;
in order to get access to it (as well as to typed Include, XyzAsync and many other EF extension methods). The Load method is equivalent of ToList but without overhead of creating additional list.
Once you do that, the binding will work. Please note that the Local will not reflect changes made to the database through different DbContext instances or different applications/users.
Related
Edit: This is not a problem with ignorance of basic programming (such as trying to dereference a null object reference).
Edit: Added the stack trace from EF within Linqpad.
Using EF6, I have a very simple query :
var menu = dbcontext.Tree.Where(t => t.Left > 2 && t.Right < 10).ToList();
This worked right up until it mysteriously stopped. dbcontext.Tree is a view in SQL Server 2012. Using Linqpad5, I get the results I expect using its built-in connection. Setting up an EF connection to my project, I get the NRE. Checking the SQL, I can copy and paste that into a SQL query window and get the proper results. I get an NRE without the Where call, also.
I've tried updating my model from database to refresh anything. I've tried removing the view from the model and updating. I've tried deleting the model entirely and recreating it. I've restarted Visual Studio AND my computer. I get the same NRE for the query. I don't know what else I can try, and this NRE makes no sense to me at all, given I get the results I expect using everything but EF. I'd chalk it up to a bug with EF if I didn't see it working previously.
Has anyone dealt with this? Searching online for this specific set of circumstances has produced nothing.
Stack Trace :
at System.Data.Entity.Core.EntityKey.AddHashValue(Int32 hashCode, Object keyValue)
at System.Data.Entity.Core.EntityKey.GetHashCode()
at System.Collections.Generic.GenericEqualityComparer`1.GetHashCode(T obj)
at System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary`2.FindEntry(TKey key)
at System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary`2.TryGetValue(TKey key, TValue& value)
at System.Data.Entity.Core.Objects.ObjectStateManager.TryGetEntityEntry(EntityKey key, EntityEntry& entry)
at System.Data.Entity.Core.Objects.ObjectStateManager.FindEntityEntry(EntityKey key)
at System.Data.Entity.Core.Common.Internal.Materialization.Shaper.HandleEntityAppendOnly[TEntity](Func`2 constructEntityDelegate, EntityKey entityKey, EntitySet entitySet)
at lambda_method(Closure , Shaper )
at System.Data.Entity.Core.Common.Internal.Materialization.Coordinator`1.ReadNextElement(Shaper shaper)
at System.Data.Entity.Core.Common.Internal.Materialization.Shaper`1.SimpleEnumerator.MoveNext()
at System.Data.Entity.Internal.LazyEnumerator`1.MoveNext()
The problem is that your Model (Tree in your example above) has one ore more properties that are not nullable (and possibly also marked as not nullable in the mapping) but the corresponding column in the data store is nullable. This exception would only manifest itself as soon as there was a record being retrieved that had a null value for one of those column(s).
Model fix - When updating the model be sure to use Nullable<T> or ? for nullable value types and if you have mappings defined (either via attributes or in types that inherit EntityTypeConfiguration) also specify that the property is optional there.
Data store fix - Alternatively change the data store schema and data to align it with what is expected in the model.
I'm just getting my head around BackboneJS, but one of the (many) things I'm still struggling with is how exactly the Models Sync up and relate to the serverside DB records.
For example, I have a Model "Dvd", now I change an attribute on the "Dvd" Model, the Name for example, and then I call save(), how exactly does the server side know what DB record to update? Does Backbone hold the DB row ID or something else?
Yes, typically you will set up your Backbone models so that they have database row IDs for any objects you're working with. When one of them is brand new on the client side and not yet saved to the server, it will either have a default or no ID, which doesn't matter since the server will be assigning the ID if and when the initial save transaction succeeds.
Upon saving or updating a model item, Backbone expects the server to reply with some JSON that includes any attributes that have changed since the save or update request was made. In the response to the initial save request, the server informs the client of a newly saved item's row ID (and you can also send along any other information you might need to pass to the client at the same time).
By default, the 'id' attribute of a model object is assumed to be its unique identifier, but backbone lets you change this if you're using a different identifier for the primary key. Just give your model an idAttribute parameter (see the docs for Backbone.Model.extend()) to do that.
Meanwhile, either the urlRoot parameter or a url function can be given to your models to characterize the urls that should be used to send the various ajax requests to the server for a given model.
I am having problems saving database records using Linq in visual studio 2010 and sql server 2008.
My problem is that when I am editing some records I sometimes check the original database record for validation purposes, only the original entry seems to be updated in real time - I.e. it is already exactly the same as the edited record, before I have submitted the changes!
Could anyone suggest an effective method of coping with this? I have tried using a 2nd database connection or a 2nd data repository to call the original record from the db but it appears to be already changed when I debug it.
public void SaveobjectEdit(object objectToEdit)
{
object originalObject = GetobjectById(objectToEdit.Id);
if (originalObject.objectStatus != objectToEdit.objectStatus)
{
originalObject.objectStatus = objectToEdit.objectStatus;
}
SaveChanges();
}
The save changes just calls _db.SubmitChanges(); by the way
Has no one got any ideas for the above question?
I hope I was clear - for validation purposes I would like to compare an original database record with one that I am editing. The problem is that when I edit a record and then attempt to retrieve the original record before saving - the original record is exactly the same as the edited record.
If you're trying to retrieve the original record in code, from the same 'context' using the same access method, then it will contain the updated object. Rather than ask why you're doing this or what you're trying to achieve, I'll instead explain how I understand the data context / object context to work (in a very loose and vague fashion).
The context is something like an in-memory representation of your database, where everything is lazy-loaded. When you instantiate the context you're given an object which represents your data model (of course it may not be a 1-1 representation, and can contain various abstractions). Nothing is loaded into the context until necessary; any queries you write stay as queries until you peer in their results. When you access an item (e.g. GetobjectById(objectToEdit.Id)) the item is loaded into the context from the database and you can get and set its properties at your leisure.
Now, the important part: When you access an item, if it has already been loaded into the context then that in-memory object is returned. The context doesn't care about checking changes made; the changes won't be persisted to the database until you submit, but they remain in memory.
The way to refresh the in-memory objects is to call the Refresh method on the context. Try this test:
using (var db = new MyObjectContext())
{
var item = db.Items.First();
item.Name = "testing this thing";
Console.WriteLine(db.Shifts.First().Name);
db.Refresh(System.Data.Objects.RefreshMode.StoreWins, db.Items);
Console.WriteLine(db.Shifts.First().Name);
}
I believe this pattern makes a lot of sense and I'm not sure it could work any other way. Consider this:
foreach (var item in db.Items)
{
item.Name = "test";
}
Assert(db.Items.All(item => item.Name == "test"));
Would you want the Assert to fail? Should those items be reloaded? I don't believe so. I'm looking at the items in my context, not in the database. I'm not checking whether items in the database have been updated, but instead that I've updated all the items in the context of my code.
This is a good reason why I don't use MyObjectContext db - it is not a 'db' or a database connection. It's a context within which I can change whatever I want, so I name it such: MyObjectContext context.
quite an explanation here, hope someone has the patience to read it through
I'm building an application in Flex 4 that handles an ordering system. I have a small mySql database and I've written a few services in php to handle the database.
Basically the logic goes like this:
I have tables for customers, products, productGroups, orders, and orderContent
I have no problem with the CRUD management of the products, orders and customers, it is the order submission that the customer will fill in that is giving me headaches:
What I want is to display the products in dataGrids, ordered by group, which will be populated with Flex datamanagement via the php-services, and that per se is no problem. But I also want an extra column in the datagrid that the user can fill in with the amount he wishes to order of that product. This column would in theory then bind to the db table "orderContent" via the php services.
The problem is that you would need to create a new order in the database first that the data could bind to (orderContent is linked to an order in the db).
I do not want to create a new order every time a user enters the page to look at the products, rather I would like to create the order when a button is pressed and then take everything from the datagrids on the page and submit it into the database.
My idea has been to create a separate one-column datagrid, line it up next to the datagrid that contains the products and in that datagrid the user would be able to enter the amount of that product he'd like to order.
I've created a valueObject that contains the data I would need for an order:
Code:
package valueObjects
{
public class OrderAmount
{
public var productId:int;
public var productAmount:int;
public var productPrice:Number;
public function orderAmount()
{
}
}
}
My idea was to use a service to get all products from a certain group, populate an ArrayCollection with the data, then transfer each object in that ArrayCollection to an instance of the Value Object above, add the value object to another ArrayCollection that would the be used as a dataProvider for the one-column datagrid (I would only display amount which would be set to zero at first, but use the other data upon transfering it to the db)
I've tried to use the results from the automatically generated serviceResults that retrieve the products for the datagrid and put in a resultHandler that transfers the valueobjects, however this does not seem to work.
Basically my question is this: Am I approaching this thing completely wrong, or is there a way I can get it to work the way I planned?
Would I need to create a completely new service request to get the product id:s, and price to populate the one-column datagrid.
I'll post some code if that would help.
Thank you if you read this far.
Solved it by creating a Value Object class to hold all the info needed for each row in the grid and from the php service that returned all products in a group, I looped through the result and transfered the data needed into my Value Object.
I then added each Value Object into an ArrayCollection and made that the dataProvider for the dataGrid.
No need to use two grids. I forgot how logic things get when you think of datagrid data just as an ArrayCollection and forget the visual presentation of it on screen.
Put in a few itemRenderers and the whole thing is beautiful!
I have a table in my database called "Task". Task has the following fields:
- ID
- Description
- AssignedUserID
- TaskTypeID
I am accessing this table through a class that was created automatically after I used an ADO.NET Entity Data Model. I can load and show the fields mentioned above in a DataGrid in my Silverlight application. However, AssignedUserID and TaskTypeID are not very descriptive. So I decided to create a stored procedure that gets the tasks and the user and task type names through their respective lookup tables. This is where the problem lies.
I want to create some custom properties in the automatically generated "Task" class. The custom properties would be named "AssignedUserName" and "TaskType". I then want to make these properties available to my Silverlight client. However, I cannot seem to figure out how to get them exposed to my Silverlight client.
Can someone help?
Thank you
If your EDM is in the same project as the DomainService you can do this:
create a partial class on the Entity type, and add your calculated property in there.
name the file **.shared.cs
it will then be auto-shared with the client/Silverlight code.
Edit:
I was assuming that you could do this calculation in app logic rather than use an sp, which seems more straightforward to me.
If you do use an SP, you'll need to use the Function Import feature in the designer to map the SP to a function in the EDM. This function can then return entities, with properties mapped however you like.
An easier way would be to just use the object model: Have Task.AssignedUser and Task.TaskType objects off of your Task class. Map these to lookup tables in your db. This will work out-of-the box (assuming the Id's are FK's to those lookup tables).
So, a couple options:
use app-logic--properties in a partial class to return the descriptions
use the object model driven by FKs to lookup tables, then just access Task.AssignedUser.Name or Task.TaskType.Description
use a function import to access the SP and map the returned values to entity properties
1 or 2 being the best options IMHO.
Another approach might be to update your EF model to include the lookup tables, add Associations between the tables, add [Include]s in the (auto-gen'd) metadata class and let EF and RIA do it for you. Maybe.