Is there a way to filter SQL profiler data to show only data from current user/session?
I tried using the LoginName or SessionLoginName filters, but the problem is that most of the calls are made by the application's web service and I see no indication who called this service.
SQL Server does not have the context of the end client when multiple tiers are involved so there is no trace column you can filter on to identify requests originating from a specific end client session. The easiest method is to trace in an isolated test environment with a single client.
If the web service has an end client session context identifier, the service could specify the client session id as the Application Name in the connection string so that you can filter on a specific client session. However, that should generally be done only in a test environment since a separate connection pool is created for each unique connection string.
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When using the SQL Server Service Broker - if I had a service with two routes configured and I executed the BEGIN DIALOG statement without specifying the desired target broker instance, which of the possible destinations would it pick as the destination for the message?
I realise with BEGIN DIALOG I can explicitly target a specific broker, but this is only optional. What would happen without it? Would the message be sent to both routes?
I can't find the supporting documentation right now, but my memory says that it will choose one of the routes arbitrarily. It was meant as a means of being able to load balance among n databases that provide the same processing capability and you as the sender of the message don't care which of them actually does the processing.
I'm working now on an application for iOS (using swift), the database is already exist in SQL Server.
How I will use it and connect with it? Do i need a web service to do that?
thanks all .
It is recommended to use a web service since having the application talk directly to the database means you need to include the SQL Credentials in the binary and anyone with a copy of the application can get them and do whatever they wish in the database. From a security point of view, this is bad.
The correct approach is to have a web server which will host an "API" -- a web application that will receive HTTP requests from the app and translate them to database queries and then will return the response in another format, such as JSON.
However, you need to be careful. This web services must use HTTPS and must first validate the input in order to protect against attacks such as SQL Injection.
I am building a support ticket system using Sql Server 2014, ASP.Net MVC 5, angular JS etc.
As part of the design I want a way for my system to know when a ticket has been updated, deleted, or created.
That way if a user has a ticket open and it is changed while they have it open I can design the system to force them to refresh the ticket before they themselves can make changes to it, to prevent User B from overriding User A's changes they haven't seen.
Ideally, I'd like to design a TCP Protocol server as a Windows Service and be able to connect to it and send it data from table triggers in Sql Server.
Then the application front end would use Javascript and WebSockets. So the application would be connected to the socket server as well as sql server. When a user opens a ticket I would send a message that user XXY has Ticket 00X open. When a change happens in sql server it tells the server Ticket 00X changed. Then the Socket server tells clients connected to it that are looking at Ticket 00X that it has changed and the javascript prevents a submit until a fresh is done.
But... Can sql server do this at all? Doesn't appear so.
So I'm wondering if it's posisble to build a plugin for SQL Server to enable support for it like PostgreSQL's Notify feature.
Update:
I've discovered User Defined CLR Functions in SQL Server and have managed to get it working. (C#/.Net Framework) I made a static class with some static methods like,
public static int NotifyTicketUpdate(int ticketID)
{
//...
}
Then I registered it in SQL Server,
USE TLCDB;
CREATE ASSEMBLY MyCompanyName_MyDll
FROM 'd:\pathtodll\mydll.dll'
WITH PERMISSION_SET = SAFE;
CREATE FUNCTION XYZ_Notify_Ticket_Updated(#input int) RETURNS int
AS EXTERNAL NAME MyCompanyName_MyDll.UserDefinedFunctions.NotifyTicketUpdated;
Then to call it in SQL, I just do
select dbo.XYZ_Notify_Ticket_Updated(#ticketIDHere);
And it all works. My Static method in c# sends the TCP/IP message to my socket server, the server then checks to see who is looking at that ticket ID and sends them a Ticket_Updated message. The websocket layer running in client javascript sees it, and locks the ticket for updates/saves.
Or you can use Service Broker for handling asynchronous notifications. Not the simplest thing to learn, but lightweight, scalable and already built-in.
You could use CLR, which requires a bit of setup.
You could create an EXE that you can shell with parameters from an SP.
You could implement some standard concurrency. Optimistic vs Pessimistic
So yes, it's possible.
I am building a Windows RT store app connecting with SQL server from client side database, and using sync framework to sync data between the two. Two scopes are defined:
1) DefaultScope: include all tables and all columns
2) TemplateScope: all tables and some of them has filter clause
(filter by id etc)
I run the provision script to provision sql server database and generate the server and client side code, and it works now, but only for one scope.
For example, if I start the sync using DefaultScope, the client database is generated and data is download, everything works. but If the templateScope is used after that, the error "Scope info not found" is returned.
If I start from TemplateScope, then it worked.
I checked the server side and client side database, both scope info looks fine.
Any thoughts?
We have a .NET3.5 Windows Forms application that calls an ASP.NET SOAP web service on the same server. This web service then saves the data into a SQL Server Express 2005 database, again on the same server.
The application has been deployed internally, as well as to a number of our customers and has worked as expected for over 18 months. However this week, at our main customer's site, the application has started generating an error message on four out of the 10 servers it is deployed on. All of the web service methods use the same connection string, but only one web method is affected.
The connection string has this format:
Data Source=MYSERVER\SQLEXPRESS;Initial Catalog=MyDatabase;
Persist Security Info=True;User ID=MyUser;Password=MyPassword
When the application calls one particular web service method, it is producing an error:
Cannot find the user 'MyDatabase', because it does not exist or you
do not have permission.
There have been no changes to the application to cause this, however the customers' IT people may have made changes to these servers. MyUser has been granted permissions on the stored procedures and is able to connect to all of the other web service interfaces.
The main thing that is confusing me is that the error messages says that the user that does not exist is MyDatabase which is the Initial Catalog name in the connection string.
I have been onsite with the customer and verified that the application is still set up correctly and that all of the other web service interfaces are correctly connecting to the database.
Any suggestions of either possible causes or other things I can check would be gratefully received.
I would strongly advise against removing the dbo. That is the schema name. Simply removing it will imply to the DB to use the default schema, which is probably dbo anyways. So it would accomplish nothing. But by not using the schema name when calling the procedure you can run into naming conflicts. For example, if you have a procedure with the same name in two different schemas in the DB, and you try to call it without a schema name, the DB will not know which one to call, resulting in an exception.