safe tsql Numbering int techniques - sql-server

Hello stackOverflowers !
i was wondering if theres a way to get in a safe way, series of numbers in transactions just like the identity.My only purpose is for grouping rows in tables and i don't mean row_number().
i've came up with this simple query, is this safe?
this table has its own identity key
declare #mynextSecuenceNumber int
select #mynextSecuenceNumber=isnull(max(secuencenumber+1),1) from mytable
insert into mytable (productID,customer,secuencenumber) values (#someval,#anotherval,#mynextSecuenceNumber)
EDIT
THE BACKGROUND
the reason for doing this is the next:
first i'm recieving autoparts for car services then i generate a ticket for that recepcion(i can recieve one,two,three auto parts) later on i can continue on reciving autoparts for that specific car service from the same autopart provider or from a different provider but i want to be able to re generate the event or the ticket otherwise i'll end up querying the service and all the the autoparts associated with that or the provider and i wont know the event what i recived in that operation and on top of that i need another specific id for all those autoparts associated with that car service.
by the way i'm on sql server 2008
heads up
using identity as secuence number can be messy cus transactions will increment the value after rolling back and other issues so be aware of that thanks to the approach privided as my acepted answer i can find another way who gets along with transactions its the first to appear on the link

Here's a scalable recommendation from Microsoft when SQL 2012 or higher isn't an option, but you need to manage sequence numbers without identities in the target table. This creates a separate table to track the sequence numbers, let's identity do some of the heavy lifting, and keeps the table size minimal by cleaning up. If this load becomes too much, you can schedule something for the cleanup during off-peak time.
-- Create table for tracking the sequence
create table <tablename> (
SeqID int identity(1,1) primary key
)
GO
-- Create procedure to return next sequence value
create procedure GetNewSeqVal_<tablename>
#NextValue int output
as
begin
declare #NewSeqValue int
set nocount on
insert into <tablename> DEFAULT VALUES
set #NewSeqValue = scope_identity()
delete from <tablename> with (readpast)
set #NextValue = #NewSeqValue
end
go
-- Get next sequence
declare #seqId int
exec GetNewSeqVal_<tablename> #NextValue = #seqId OUTPUT
For more info: http://blogs.msdn.com/b/sqlcat/archive/2006/04/10/sql-server-sequence-number.aspx

Related

How does SQL Server handle failed query to linked server?

I have a stored procedure that relies on a query to a linked server.
This stored procedure is roughly structured as follows:
-- Create local table var to stop query from needing round trips to linked server
DECLARE #duplicates TABLE (eid NVARCHAR(6))
INSERT INTO #duplicates(eid)
SELECT eid FROM [linked_server].[linked_database].[dbo].[linked_table]
WHERE es = 'String'
-- Update on my server using data from linked server
UPDATE [my_server].[my_database].[dbo].[my_table]
-- Many things, including
[status] = CASE
WHEN
eid IN (
SELECT eid FROM #duplicates
)
THEN 'String'
ELSE es
END
FROM [my_server].[another_database].[dbo].[view]
-- This view obscures sensitive information and shows only the data that I have permission to see
-- Many other things
The query itself is much more complex, but the key idea is building this temporary table from a linked server (because it takes the query 5 minutes to run if I don't, versus 3 seconds if I do).
I've recently had an issue where I ended up with updates to my table that failed to get checked against the linked server for duplicate information.
The logical chain of events is this:
Get all of the data from the original view
The original view contains maybe 3000 records, of which maybe 30 are
duplicates of the entity in question, but with 1 field having a
different value.
I then have to grab data from a different server to know which of
the duplicates is the correct one.
When the stored procedure runs, it updates each record.
ERROR STEP - when the stored procedure hits a duplicate record, it
updates my_table again - so es gets changed multiple times in a row.
The temp table was added after the fact when we realized incorrect es values were being introduced to my_table.
'my_database` does not contain the data needed to determine which is the correct tuple, hence the requirement for the linked server.
As far as I can tell, we had a temporary network interruption or a connection timeout that stopped my_server from getting the response back from linked_server, and it just passed an empty table to the rest of the procedure.
So, my question is - how can I guard against this happening?
I can't just check if the table is empty, because it could legitimately be empty. I need to definitively know if that initial SELECT from linked_server failed, if it timed out, or if it intentionally returned nothing.
without knowing the definition of the table you're querying you could get into an issue where your data is to long and you get a truncation error on your table.
Better make sure and substring it...
DECLARE #duplicates TABLE (eid NVARCHAR(6))
INSERT INTO #duplicates(eid)
SELECT SUBSTRING(eid,1,6) FROM [linked_server].[linked_database].[dbo].[linked_table]
WHERE es = 'String'
-- Update on my server using data from linked server
UPDATE [my_server].[my_database].[dbo].[my_table]
-- Many things, including
[status] = CASE
WHEN
eid IN (
SELECT eid FROM #duplicates
)
THEN 'String'
ELSE es
END
FROM [my_server].[another_database].[dbo].[view]
I had a similar problem where I needed to move data between servers, could not use a network connection so I ended up doing BCP out and BCP in. This is fast, clean and takes away the complexity of user authentication, drivers, trust domains. also it's repeatable and can be used for incremental loading.

Use Sybase triggers to write dynamic statement using all old and new values for creating your own replication transaction statement log?

PROBLEM SUMMARY
I have to write I/U/D-statement-generating-triggers for a bucardo/symmetricDS-inspired homemade bidirectional replication system between Sybase ADS and Postgresql 11 groups of nodes, using BEFORE triggers on any Postgresql and Sybase DB that creates Insert/Update/Delete commands based on the command entered in a replicating source table: e.g. an INSERT INTO PERSON (first_name,last_name,gender,age,ethnicity) Values ('John','Doe','M',42,'C') and manipulate them into a corresponding Insert statement, and UPDATE by getting OLD and NEW values to dynamically make an UPDATE statement, along with getting OLD values to make a DELETE command, all to run per command on a destination at some interval.
I know this is difficult and no one does this but it is for a job and I have no other options and can't object to offer a different solution. I have no other teammates or human resources to help outside of SO and something like Codementors, which was not so helpful. My idea/strategy is to copy parts of bucardo/SymmetricDS when inserting OLD and NEW values for generating a statement/command to run on the destination. Right now, I am snapshotting the whole table to a CSV as opposed to doing by individual command, but by command and looping through table that generates and saves commands will make the job much easier.
One big issue is that they come from Sybase ADS and have a mixed Key/Index structure (many tables have NO PK) and are mirroring that in Postgresql, so I am trying to write PK-less statements, or all-column commands to get around the no-pk tables. They also will only replicate certain columns for certain tables, so I have a column in a table for them to insert the column names delimited by ';' and then split it out into an array and link the column names to the values for each statement to generate a full command for I/U/D, Hopefully. I am open to other strategies but this is a big solo project and I have gone at it many ways with much difficulty.
I mostly come from DBA background and have some programming experience with the fundamentals, so I am mostly pseudocoding each major sequence,googling for syntax by part, and adjusting as I go or encounter a language incapability. I am thankful for any help given, as I am getting a bit desperate and discouraged.
WHAT I HAVE TRIED
I have to do this for Sybase ADS and Postgresql but this question is intially over ADS since it's more challenging and older.
To have one "Log" table which tracks row changes for each of the replicating tables and records and ultimately dynamically generates a command is the goal for both platforms. I am trying to make trigger statements like:
CREATE TRIGGER PERSON_INSERT
ON PERSON
BEFORE
INSERT
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Backlog (SourceTableID, TriggerType, Status, CreateTimeDate, NewValues) select ID, 'INSERT','READY', NOW(),''first_name';'last_name';'gender';'age';'ethnicity'' from __new;
END;
CREATE TRIGGER PERSON_UPDATE
ON PERSON
BEFORE
UPDATE
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Backlog (SourceTableID, TriggerType, Status, CreateTimeDate, NewValues) select ID, 'U','UPDATE','READY', NOW(),''first_name';'last_name';'gender';'age';'ethnicity'' from __new;
UPDATE Backlog SET OldValues=select ''first_name';'last_name';'gender';'age';'ethnicity'' from __old where SourceTableID=select ID from __old;
END;
CREATE TRIGGER PERSON_DELETE
ON PERSON
BEFORE
DELETE
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Backlog (SourceTableID, TriggerType, Status, CreateTimeDate, OldValues) select ID, 'D','DELETE','READY', NOW(),''first_name';'last_name';'gender';'age';'ethnicity'' from __old;
END;
but I would like the "''first_name';'last_name';'gender';'age';'ethnicity''" to come from another table as a value to make it dynamic since multiple tables will write their value and statement info to the single log table. Then, it can be made into a variable and then probably split to link to the corresponding values so the IUD statements can be made which will be executed on the destination one at a time.
ATTEMPTED INCOMPLETE SAMPLE TRIGGER CODE
CREATE TRIGGER PERSON_INSERT
ON PERSON
BEFORE
INSERT
BEGIN
--Declare #Columns string
--#Columns=select Columns from metatable where tablename='PERSON'
--String Split(#Columns,';') into array to correspond to new and old VALUES
--#NewValues=#['#Columns='+NEW.#Columns+'']
INSERT INTO Backlog (SourceTableID, TriggerType, Status, CreateTimeDate, NewValues) select ID, 'INSERT','READY', NOW(),''first_name';'last_name';'gender';'age';'ethnicity'' from __new;
END;
CREATE TRIGGER PERSON_UPDATE
ON PERSON
BEFORE
UPDATE
BEGIN
--Declare #Columns string
--#Columns=select Columns from metatable where tablename='PERSON'
--String Split(#Columns,';') into array to correspond to new and old VALUES
--#NewValues=#['#Columns='+NEW.#Columns+'']
--#OldValues=#['#Columns='+OLD.#Columns+'']
INSERT INTO Backlog (SourceTableID, TriggerType, Status, CreateTimeDate, NewValues) select ID, 'U','UPDATE','READY', NOW(),''first_name';'last_name';'gender';'age';'ethnicity'' from __new;
UPDATE Backlog SET OldValues=select ''first_name';'last_name';'gender';'age';'ethnicity'' from __old where SourceTableID=select ID from __old;
END;
CREATE TRIGGER PERSON_DELETE
ON PERSON
BEFORE
DELETE
BEGIN
--Declare #Columns string
--#Columns=select Columns from metatable where tablename='PERSON'
--String Split(#Columns,',') into array to correspond to new and old VALUES
--#OldValues=#['#Columns='+OLD.#Columns+'']
INSERT INTO Backlog (SourceTableID, TriggerType, Status, CreateTimeDate, OldValues) select ID, 'D','DELETE','READY', NOW(),''first_name';'last_name';'gender';'age';'ethnicity'' from __old;
END;
CONCLUSION
For each row inserted,updated, or deleted; in a COMMAND column in the log table, I am trying to generate a corresponding 'INSERT INTO PERSON ('+#Columns+') VALUES ('+#NewValues+')' type statement, or an UPDATE or DELETE. Then a Foreach service will run each command value ordered by create time, as the main replication service.
To be clear, I am trying to make my sample code trigger write all old values and new values to a column in a dynamic way without hardcoding the columns in each trigger since it will be used for multiple tables, and writing the values into a single column delimited by a comma or semicolon.
An even bigger wish or goal behind this is to find a way to save/script each IUD command and then be able to run them on subscriber server.DBs of postgresql and Sybase platform, therefore making my own replication from a log
It is a complex but solvable problem that would take time and careful planning to write. I think what you are looking for is the "Execute Immediate" command in ADS SQL syntax. With this command you can create a dynamic statement to then be executed once construction of the SQL statement is terminated. Save each desired column value to a temp table by carefully constructing the statement as a string and then execute it with Execute Immediate. For example:
DECLARE TableColumns Cursor ;
DECLARE FldName Char(100) ;
...
OPEN TableColumns AS SELECT *
FROM system.columns
WHERE parent = #cTableName
AND field_type < 21 //ADS_ROWVERSION
AND field_type <> 6 //ADS_BINARY
AND field_type <> 7; //ADS_IMAGE
While Fetch TableColumns DO
FldName = Trim( TableColumns.Name) ;
StrSql = 'SELECT New.[' + Trim( FldName ) + '] newVal' +
'INTO #myTmpTable FROM ___New n' ;
After constructing the statement as a string it can then be executed like this:
EXECUTE IMMEDIATE STRSQL ;
You can pickup old and new values from __old and __new temp tables that are always available to triggers. Insert values into temp table myTmpTable and then use it to update the target. Remember to drop myTmpTable at the end.
Furthermore, I would think you can create a function on the DD that can actually be called from each trigger on the tables you want to keep track of instead of writing a long trigger for each table and cTableName can be a parameter sent to the function. That would make maintenance a little easier.

error when insert into linked server

I want to insert some data on the local server into a remote server, and used the following sql:
select * into linkservername.mydbname.dbo.test from localdbname.dbo.test
But it throws the following error
The object name 'linkservername.mydbname.dbo.test' contains more than the maximum number of prefixes. The maximum is 2.
How can I do that?
I don't think the new table created with the INTO clause supports 4 part names.
You would need to create the table first, then use INSERT..SELECT to populate it.
(See note in Arguments section on MSDN: reference)
The SELECT...INTO [new_table_name] statement supports a maximum of 2 prefixes: [database].[schema].[table]
NOTE: it is more performant to pull the data across the link using SELECT INTO vs. pushing it across using INSERT INTO:
SELECT INTO is minimally logged.
SELECT INTO does not implicitly start a distributed transaction, typically.
I say typically, in point #2, because in most scenarios a distributed transaction is not created implicitly when using SELECT INTO. If a profiler trace tells you SQL Server is still implicitly creating a distributed transaction, you can SELECT INTO a temp table first, to prevent the implicit distributed transaction, then move the data into your target table from the temp table.
Push vs. Pull Example
In this example we are copying data from [server_a] to [server_b] across a link. This example assumes query execution is possible from both servers:
Push
Instead of connecting to [server_a] and pushing the data to [server_b]:
INSERT INTO [server_b].[database].[schema].[table]
SELECT * FROM [database].[schema].[table]
Pull
Connect to [server_b] and pull the data from [server_a]:
SELECT * INTO [database].[schema].[table]
FROM [server_a].[database].[schema].[table]
I've been struggling with this for the last hour.
I now realise that using the syntax
SELECT orderid, orderdate, empid, custid
INTO [linkedserver].[database].[dbo].[table]
FROM Sales.Orders;
does not work with linked servers. You have to go onto your linked server and manually create the table first, then use the following syntax:
INSERT INTO [linkedserver].[database].[dbo].[table]
SELECT orderid, orderdate, empid, custid
FROM Sales.Orders
WHERE shipcountry = 'UK';
I've experienced the same issue and I've performed the following workaround:
If you are able to log on to remote server where you want to insert data with MSSQL or sqlcmd and rebuild your query vice-versa:
so from:
SELECT * INTO linkservername.mydbname.dbo.test
FROM localdbname.dbo.test
to the following:
SELECT * INTO localdbname.dbo.test
FROM linkservername.mydbname.dbo.test
In my situation it works well.
#2Toad: For sure INSERT INTO is better / more efficient. However for small queries and quick operation SELECT * INTO is more flexible because it creates the table on-the-fly and insert your data immediately, whereas INSERT INTO requires creating a table (auto-ident options and so on) before you carry out your insert operation.
I may be late to the party, but this was the first post I saw when I searched for the 4 part table name insert issue to a linked server. After reading this and a few more posts, I was able to accomplish this by using EXEC with the "AT" argument (for SQL2008+) so that the query is run from the linked server. For example, I had to insert 4M records to a pseudo-temp table on another server, and doing an INSERT-SELECT FROM statement took 10+ minutes. But changing it to the following SELECT-INTO statement, which allows the 4 part table name in the FROM clause, does it in mere seconds (less than 10 seconds in my case).
EXEC ('USE MyDatabase;
BEGIN TRY DROP TABLE TempID3 END TRY BEGIN CATCH END CATCH;
SELECT Field1, Field2, Field3
INTO TempID3
FROM SourceServer.SourceDatabase.dbo.SourceTable;') AT [DestinationServer]
GO
The query is run on DestinationServer, changes to right database, ensures the table does not already exist, and selects from the SourceServer. Minimally logged, and no fuss. This information may already out there somewhere, but I hope it helps anyone searching for similar issues.

SQL Server 2000: search through out database

Some how some records in my table are getting updated with value of xyz in a certain column. Out of hundred of stored procedures, functions, triggers, how can I determine which code is doing this action. Is there a way to search through the database some how through each and every script of the code?
Please help.
One approach is to check syscomments
Contains entries for each view, rule,
default, trigger, CHECK constraint,
DEFAULT constraint, and stored
procedure within the database. The
text column contains the original SQL
definition statements..
e.g. select text from syscomments
If you are having trouble finding that literal string, the values could be coming from a table, or they could be being concatenated within a routine.
Try this
Select text from syscomments
where CharIndex('x', text) > 0
and CharIndex('y', text) > 0
and CharIndex('z', text) > 0
That might help you either find the right routine, or further indicate that the values are coming from a table.
This is going to be nearly impossible to do in SQL Server 2000 because the update might very well be from a variable that has that value or a join to another table that has that value and not hard-coded into the stored proc, trigger etc. The update could also be coming from a DTS package, a job, a piece of dynamic code run by the app or even from query analyzer, so the code itself may not be recorded inthe datbase anywhere.
Perhaps a better approach might be to create an audit table for the table in question and have it record the user and the code from the spid that generated the change as well as the old and new values. You'll have to wait until it happens again, but then you would know exactly what changed the value and what value to put it back to if need be.
Alternatively you could run profiler on the system until it happens but profiler tends to hurt performance and is not usually a good idea to run on a production system. If it is happening very often, it might be an acceptable alternative.
Here's a hint as to how you might get some of the info you want for the eventual trigger code you write:
create table #temp (eventtype nvarchar (1000), parameters int, eventinfo nvarchar (4000), myspid int)
declare #myspid int
select #myspid =##spid
insert #temp (eventtype,parameters, eventinfo)
exec ('dbcc inputbuffer (##spid)')
update #temp
set myspid = #myspid
select hostname, program_name, eventinfo
from #temp t
join sysprocesses s on t.myspid = s.spid
WHERE spid = #myspid
You might use sql-profiler to trac the update of a given table / column.

Ensuring unique numbers from a sql server database

I have an application that uses incident numbers (amongst other types of numbers). These numbers are stored in a table called "Number_Setup", which contains the current value of the counter.
When the app generates a new incident, it number_setup table and gets the required number counter row (counters can be reset daily, weekly, etc and are stored as int's). It then incremenets the counter and updates the row with the new value.
The application is multiuser (approximately 100 users at any one time, as well as sql jobs that run and grab 100's of incident records and request incident numbers for each). The incident table has some duplicate incident numbers where they should not be duplicate.
A stored proc is used to retrieve the next counter.
SELECT #Counter = counter, #ShareId=share_id, #Id=id
FROM Number_Setup
WHERE LinkTo_ID=#LinkToId
AND Counter_Type='I'
IF isnull(#ShareId,0) > 0
BEGIN
-- use parent counter
SELECT #Counter = counter, #ID=id
FROM Number_Setup
WHERE Id=#ShareID
END
SELECT #NewCounter = #Counter + 1
UPDATE Number_Setup SET Counter = #NewCounter
WHERE id=#Id
I've now surrounded that block with a transaction, but I'm not entirely sure it' will 100% fix the problem, as I think there's still shared locks, so the counter can be read anyway.
Perhaps I can check that the counter hasn't been updated, in the update statement
UPDATE Number_Setup SET Counter = #NewCounter
WHERE Counter = #Counter
IF ##ERROR = 0 AND ##ROWCOUNT > 0
COMMIT TRANSACTION
ELSE
ROLLBACK TRANSACTION
I'm sure this is a common problem with invoice numbers in financial apps etc.
I cannot put the logic in code either and use locking at that level.
I've also locked at HOLDLOCK but I'm not sure of it's application. Should it be put on the two SELECT statements?
How can I ensure no duplicates are created?
The trick is to do the counter update and read in a single atomic operation:
UPDATE Number_Setup SET Counter = Counter+1
OUTPUT INSERTED.Counter
WHERE id=#Id;
This though does not assign the new counter to #NewCounter, but instead returns it as a result set to the client. If you have to assign it, use an intermediate table variable to output the new counter INTO:
declare #NewCounter int;
declare #tabCounter table (NewCounter int);
UPDATE Number_Setup SET Counter = Counter+1
OUTPUT INSERTED.Counter INTO #tabCounter (NewCounter)
WHERE id=#Id
SELECT #NewCounter = NewCounter FROM #tabCounter;
This solves the problem of making the Counter increment atomic. You still have other race conditions in your procedure because the LinkTo_Id and share_id can still be updated after the first select so you can increment the counter of the wrong link-to item, but that cannot be solved just from this code sample as it depends also on the code that actualy updates the shared_id and/or LinkTo_Id.
BTW you should get into the habbit of name your fields with consistent case. If they are named consistently then you must use the exact match case in T-SQL code. Your scripts run fine now just because you have a case insensitive collation server, if you deploy on a case sensitive collation server and your scripts don't match the exact case of the field/tables names errors will follow galore.
have you tried using GUIDs instead of autoincrements as your unique identifier?
If you have the ablity to modify your job that gets mutiple records, I would change the thinking so that your counter is an identity column. Then when you get the next record you can just do an insert and get the ##identity of the table. That would ensure that you get the biggest number. You would also have to do a dbccReseed to reset the counter instead of just updating the table when you want to reset the identity. The only issue is that you'd have to do 100 or so inserts as part of your sql job to get a group of identities. That may be too much overhead but using an identity column is a guarenteed way to get unique numbers.
I might be missing something, but it seems like you are trying to reinvent technology that has already been solved by most databases.
instead of reading and updating from the 'Counter' column in the Number_Setup table, why don't you just use an autoincrementing primary key for your counter? You'll never have a duplicate value for a primary key.

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