I have a table ABSENCE that has 40 employee ids and need to add two columns from a table variable, which acts as a reference table. For each emp id, I need to randomly assign the values from the table variable. Here's the code I tried without randomizing:
USE TSQL2012;
GO
DECLARE #MAX SMALLINT;
DECLARE #MIN SMALLINT;
DECLARE #RECODE SMALLINT;
DECLARE #RE CHAR(100);
DECLARE #rearray table (recode smallint,re char(100));
insert into #rearray values (100,'HIT BY BEER TRUCK')
,(200,'BAD HAIR DAY')
,(300,'ASPIRIN OVERDOSE')
,(400,'MAKEUP DISASTER')
,(500,'GOT LOCKED IN THE SALOON')
DECLARE #REFCURSOR AS CURSOR;
SET #REFCURSOR = CURSOR FOR
SELECT RECODE,RE FROM #REARRAY;
OPEN #REFCURSOR;
SET #MAX = (SELECT DISTINCT ##ROWCOUNT FROM ABSENCE);
SET #MIN = 0;
ALTER TABLE ABSENCE ADD CODE SMALLINT, REASONING CHAR(100);
WHILE (#MIN <= #MAX)
BEGIN
FETCH NEXT FROM #REFCURSOR INTO #RECODE,#RE;
INSERT INTO ABSENCE (CODE, REASONING) VALUES (#RECODE,#RE);
SET #MIN+=1;
END
CLOSE #REFCURSOR
DEALLOCATE #REFCURSOR
SELECT EMPID,CODE,REASONING FROM ABSENCE
Though am inserting into two columns only, it is attempting to insert into empid (which has already been filled) and as it cannot be NULL, the insertion fails.
Also, how to randomize the values from the REARRAY table variable to insert them into the ABSENCE table?
Since this is a small dataset, one approach might be to use CROSS APPLY with a SELECT TOP(1) ... FROM #rearray ORDER BY NEWID() approach. This will essentially join your ABSENCE table with your reference table in an UPDATE statement, selecting a random row each time in the join. In full, it would look like:
UPDATE ABSENCE
SET col1 = x1.recode, col2 = x2.recode
FROM ABSENCE a
CROSS APPLY (SELECT TOP(1) * FROM #rearray ORDER BY NEWID()) x1(recode, re)
CROSS APPLY (SELECT TOP(1) * FROM #rearray ORDER BY NEWID()) x2(recode, re)
Related
I get batches of inventory items to update and I would like to eliminate calling the stored procedure multiple times and instead call it once with multiple values. I have done similar in oracle with the parameters as an array trick. I would like to do something similar for SQL Server.
I have a comma separated list of Sku
I have a comma separated list of Quantity.
I have a comma separated list of StoreIds.
The standard update is
Update Inventory
set quantity = #Quantity
where sku = #Sku and StoreId = #StoreId;
Table definition
CREATE TABLE Inventory
(
[Sku] NVARCHAR(50) NOT NULL,
[Quantity] DECIMAL NULL DEFAULT 0.0,
[StoreId] INT NOT NULL
}
My bad attempt at doing this
ALTER PROCEDURE UpdateList
(#Sku varchar(max),
#Quantity varchar(max),
#StoreId varchar(max))
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE #n int = 0;
DECLARE #skuTable TABLE = SELECT CONVERT(value) FROM STRING_SPLIT(#Sku, ',');
DECLARE #quantityTable = SELECT CONVERT(value) FROM STRING_SPLIT(#Quantity, ',');
DECLARE #StoreIdTable = SELECT CONVERT(value) FROM STRING_SPLIT(#StoreId , ',');
WHILE #n < #skuTable.Count
BEGIN
UPDATE inventoryItem
SET Quantity = #quantityTable
WHERE Sku = #skuTable AND StoreId = #StoreIdTable;
SELECT #n = #n + 1;
END
END
I am open to using temp tables as parameters instead of comma separated. This is being called from an Entity Framework 6 context object from the front end system.
It's a bad practice to pass tabular values in this way.
Best solution is to pass it as a "user defined table type", if possible,
otherwise, it's better to get JSON/XML parameter
and then you can update your table like this:
--[ Parameters ]--
DECLARE #json AS NVARCHAR(MAX) = '[{"Sku":"A","Quantity":1.4,"StoreId":1},{"Sku":"B","Quantity":2.5,"StoreId":2},{"Sku":"C","Quantity":3.6,"StoreId":3}]';
--[ Bulk Update ]--
UPDATE inventoryItem
SET Quantity = I.Quantity
FROM inventoryItem AS T
JOIN OPENJSON(#json) WITH (Sku NVARCHAR(50), Quantity DECIMAL(5,1),StoreId INT) AS I
ON I.Sku = T.Sku
AND I.StoreId = T.StoreId
It's a bad practice to pass tabular values as varchar columns parameters,
but if you still want to go this way, here is a working code:
--[ Parameters ]--
DECLARE #Sku VARCHAR(max) = 'A,B,C',
#Quantity VARCHAR(max) = '1.4,2.5,3.6',
#StoreId VARCHAR(max) = '1,2,3'
--[ Converting VARCHAR Parameters to Table #Inventory ]--
DROP TABLE IF EXISTS #Sku
SELECT IDENTITY(int, 1,1) AS RowNum,
T.value
INTO #Sku
FROM STRING_SPLIT(#Sku, ',') AS T
DROP TABLE IF EXISTS #Quantity
SELECT IDENTITY(int, 1,1) AS RowNum,
T.value
INTO #Quantity
FROM STRING_SPLIT(#Quantity, ',') AS T
DROP TABLE IF EXISTS #StoreId
SELECT IDENTITY(int, 1,1) AS RowNum,
T.value
INTO #StoreId
FROM STRING_SPLIT(#StoreId, ',') AS T
DROP TABLE IF EXISTS #Inventory
SELECT Sku.value AS Sku,
Quantity.value AS Quantity,
StoreId.value AS StoreId
INTO #Inventory
FROM #Sku AS Sku
JOIN #Quantity AS Quantity ON Quantity.RowNum = Sku.RowNum
JOIN #StoreId AS StoreId ON StoreId.RowNum = Sku.RowNum
--[ Bulk Update ]--
UPDATE inventoryItem
SET Quantity = I.Quantity
FROM inventoryItem AS T
JOIN #Inventory AS I
ON I.Sku = T.Sku
AND I.StoreId = T.StoreId
The above answers are correct for updates and answered my question. But I wanted to add the insert here as I am sure someone will be looking for both. Maybe I will come back an make a new question and answer it myself.
I think the JSON version is best for my issue because I am doing entity framework and serializing an object to JSON is a trivial task. The basic process is to create an inline temp table from the json string. Calling out the objects via a simple dot notation string. I would suggest making the object passed in as simple as possible and preferably one level of properties.
create or alter Procedure bulkInventoryInsert( #json AS NVARCHAR(MAX))
AS
BEGIN
INSERT into inventory
SELECT Sku, Quantity, StoreId FROM
OPENJSON(#json)
WITH(Sku varchar(200) '$.Sku',
Quantity decimal(5,1) '$.Quantity',
StoreId INT '$.StoreId');
END
DECLARE #json AS NVARCHAR(MAX) = '[{"Sku":"A","Quantity":1.4,"StoreId":2},{"Sku":"B","Quantity":2.5,"StoreId":3},{"Sku":"C","Quantity":3.6,"StoreId":2}]';
EXECUTE bulkInventoryInsert #json;
The key part to recognize is this section here:
SELECT Sku, Quantity, StoreId FROM
OPENJSON(#json)
WITH(Sku varchar(200) '$.Sku',
Quantity decimal(5,1) '$.Quantity',
StoreId INT '$.StoreId');
This is creating a temp table with columns that match the table that it will be inserted into. The "WITH" portion specifies the column name, type, and where in the Json string to get the value.
I hope this will help. Maybe when I get time I will do a question and answer for this.
Create table data with column StudentId (varchar type), Marks (Double). Create table data1 with column StudentId (varchar type), OldMarks (Double),NewMarks,Date.
Create trigger on data table.If mark is changed,create entry in data1 table for student with old marks,new marks & current date.
Here is the code I've tried:
CREATE TRIGGER marksss ON [dbo].[data] after UPDATE
AS declare #studentid int;
declare #marks int;
declare #xyz int;
declare #newmarks int;
declare #oldmarks int;
select #studentid=i.student_id from inserted i;
--to fetch inserted values
select #marks=i.marks from inserted i;
begin if update(marks) --set #oldmarks=#mark set #newmarks=#marks
insert into data1(student_id,new_marks,old_marks,date)
values (#studentid,#newmarks,#oldmarks,getdate()enter code here);
end
go
the problem is that it does not display old marks
I've managed to get what you want. First of all, you want to use an instead of trigger instead. Oracle has a before trigger which is what you ideally need however MSSQL doesn't have this feature so we have to do the passed in update manually too...
Here is the code with the table setup that I used, just changed to suit your needs.
CREATE TABLE A (ID INT IDENTITY PRIMARY KEY, SCORE INT)
CREATE TABLE B (ID INT FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES A(ID), SCORE INT, OLDSCORE INT, [date] DATETIME)
GO
CREATE TRIGGER marksss ON A INSTEAD OF UPDATE
AS
BEGIN
IF (SELECT A.SCORE FROM A INNER JOIN INSERTED I ON I.ID = A.ID) != (SELECT I.SCORE FROM INSERTED I)
BEGIN
INSERT INTO B(ID,SCORE,OLDSCORE,[date])
SELECT I.ID, I.SCORE, A.SCORE, GETDATE()
FROM INSERTED I
INNER JOIN A ON I.ID = A.ID
END
BEGIN
UPDATE A
SET SCORE = (SELECT I.SCORE FROM INSERTED I)
END
END
I have a TSQL code that relies on a stored procedure to select a row.
When I'm implementing a more complex TSQL script that will select many rows based on a condition, instead of having one result set of x rows I'm ending up with x result sets containing one row.
My first question is: is it a concern or the performances are close to what I would get with one result set of x rows?
Second question: does anybody think that a temporary table where my stored procedure insert the result (instead of a select) should be faster?
Edit:
Basically this stored procedure select all the items of a given HierarchicalObject.
ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[MtdMdl_HierarchicalObject_Collection_Items]
#relatedid int
AS
BEGIN
SET NOCOUNT ON
declare #curkeyid int
declare cur CURSOR static read_only LOCAL
for select distinct [Id] from MtdMdl_Item where [Owner] = #relatedid
open cur
fetch next
from cur into #curkeyid
while ##FETCH_STATUS = 0
BEGIN
-- select the item row from its ID
exec MtdMdl_Item_ItemBase_Read #keyid = #curkeyid
fetch next
from cur into #curkeyid
END
close cur
deallocate cur
END
ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[MtdMdl_Item_ItemBase_Read]
#keyid int
AS
BEGIN
SET NOCOUNT ON
SELECT TOP(1) [Id], [TimeStamp], [Name], [Owner], [Value]
FROM [MtdMdl_Item]
WHERE ([Id]=#keyid)
ORDER BY TimeStamp Desc
END
For sure you should better place all single output rows into resulting temporary table before selecting final recordset. There is no reason currently in your code to return one recorset containing all separate rows from iteration over cursor with sp;
Your MtdMdl_Item_ItemBase_Read is relevant a bit because after turning it into function you can avoid sp+cursor and complete the task with one single query using inline function.
upd
According to your data structure I understand that your [Id] is not unique which is source of confusing.
There are many ways to do what you need but here is example of one query even avoiding CTE for temporary result:
DECLARE #relatedid int = 2
SELECT top(1) WITH ties
[Id], [TimeStamp], [Name], [Owner], [Value]
FROM MtdMdl_Item
WHERE [Owner]=#relatedid
ORDER BY row_number() over(partition BY [Id] ORDER BY [TimeStamp] DESC)
Consider this SQL Fiddle as demo.
upd2
Example with inline table function:
CREATE FUNCTION MtdMdl_Item_ItemBase_Read (#keyid int)
RETURNS TABLE
AS
RETURN
(
SELECT TOP(1) [Id], [TimeStamp], [Name], [Owner], [Value]
FROM [MtdMdl_Item]
WHERE ([Id]=#keyid)
ORDER BY TimeStamp Desc
)
GO
DECLARE #relatedid int = 2
SELECT DISTINCT A.[Id],B.* FROM MtdMdl_Item A
OUTER apply (SELECT * FROM MtdMdl_Item_ItemBase_Read(A.[Id])) B
WHERE A.[Owner] = #relatedid
SQL Fiddle 2
Your answer is in below link you should use GROUP BY instead of DISTINCT
SQL/mysql - Select distinct/UNIQUE but return all columns?
And in below line of your code enter list of columns you want in your result
declare cur CURSOR static read_only LOCAL
for select distinct [Id] from MtdMdl_Item where [Owner] = #relatedid
So your query will be
declare cur CURSOR static read_only LOCAL
for select rows,you,want,in,result from MtdMdl_Item where [Owner] = #relatedid Order By [column name you want to be distinct]
I have a table that stores two values; 'total' and 'owing' for each customer. Data is uploaded to the table using two files, one that brings in 'total' and the other brings in 'owing'. This means I have two records for each customerID:
customerID:--------Total:--------- Owing:
1234---------------- 1000----------NULL
1234-----------------NULL-----------200
I want to write a stored procedure that merges the two records together:
customerID:--------Total:--------- Owing:
1234---------------- 1000----------200
I have seen examples using COALESCE so put together something like this:
BEGIN
-- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from
-- interfering with SELECT statements.
SET NOCOUNT ON;
--Variable declarations
DECLARE #customer_id varchar(20)
DECLARE #total decimal(15,8)
DECLARE #owing decimal(15,8)
DECLARE #customer_name_date varchar(255)
DECLARE #organisation varchar(4)
DECLARE #country_code varchar(2)
DECLARE #created_date datetime
--Other Variables
DECLARE #totals_staging_id int
--Get the id of the first row in the staging table
SELECT #totals_staging_id = MIN(totals_staging_id)
from TOTALS_STAGING
--iterate through the staging table
WHILE #totals_staging_id is not null
BEGIN
update TOTALS_STAGING
SET
total = coalesce(#total, total),
owing = coalesce(#owing, owing)
where totals_staging_id = #totals_staging_id
END
END
Any Ideas?
SELECT t1.customerId, t1.total, t2.owing FROM test t1 JOIN test t2 ON ( t1.customerId = t2.customerId) WHERE t1.total IS NOT NULL AND t2.owing IS NOT NULL
Wondering why aren't you just using UPDATE on a second file execution?
Except for COUNT, aggregate functions ignore null values. Aggregate
functions are frequently used with the GROUP BY clause of the SELECT
statement. MSDN
So you don't need to worry about null values with summing. Following will give your merging records together. Fiddle-demo
select customerId,
sum(Total) Total,
sum(Owing) Owing
from T
Group by customerId
Try this :
CREATE TABLE #Temp
(
CustomerId int,
Total int,
Owing int
)
insert into #Temp
values (1024,100,null),(1024,null,200),(1025,10,null)
Create Table #Final
(
CustomerId int,
Total int,
Owing int
)
insert into #Final
values (1025,100,50)
MERGE #Final AS F
USING
(SELECT customerid,sum(Total) Total,sum(owing) owing FROM #Temp
group by #Temp.customerid
) AS a
ON (F.customerid = a.customerid)
WHEN MATCHED THEN UPDATE SET F.Total = F.Total + isnull(a.Total,0)
,F.Owing = F.Owing + isnull(a.Owing,0)
WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN
INSERT (CustomerId,Total,Owing)
VALUES (a.customerid,a.Total,a.owing);
select * from #Final
drop table #Temp
drop table #Final
This should work:
SELECT CustomerID,
COALESCE(total1, total2) AS Total,
COALESCE(owing1, owing2) AS Owing
FROM
(SELECT row1.CustomerID AS CustomerID,
row1.Total AS total1,
row2.Total AS total2,
row1.Owing AS owing1,
row2.Owing AS owing2
FROM YourTable row1 INNER JOIN YourTable row2 ON row1.CustomerID = row2.CustomerID
WHERE row1.Total IS NULL AND row2.Total IS NOT NULL) temp
--Note: Alter the WHERE clause as necessary to ensure row1 and row2 are unique.
...but note that you'll need some mechanism to ensure row1 and row2 are unique. My WHERE clause is an example based on the data you provided. You'll need to tweak this to add something more specific to your business rules.
Consider the following SQL:
CREATE TABLE Foo
(
ID int IDENTITY(1,1),
Data nvarchar(max)
)
INSERT INTO Foo (Data)
SELECT TOP 1000 Data
FROM SomeOtherTable
WHERE SomeColumn = #SomeParameter
DECLARE #LastID int
SET #LastID = SCOPE_IDENTITY()
I would like to know if I can depend on the 1000 rows that I inserted into table Foo having contiguous identity values. In order words, if this SQL block produces a #LastID of 2000, can I know for certain that the ID of the first record I inserted was 1001? I am mainly curious about multiple statements inserting records into table Foo concurrently.
I know that I could add a serializable transaction around my insert statement to ensure the behavior that I want, but do I really need to? I'm worried that introducing a serializable transaction will degrade performance, but if SQL Server won't allow other statements to insert into table Foo while this statement is running, then I don't have to worry about it.
I disagree with the accepted answer. This can easily be tested and disproved by running the following.
Setup
USE tempdb
CREATE TABLE Foo
(
ID int IDENTITY(1,1),
Data nvarchar(max)
)
Connection 1
USE tempdb
SET NOCOUNT ON
WHILE NOT EXISTS(SELECT * FROM master..sysprocesses WHERE context_info = CAST('stop' AS VARBINARY(128) ))
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Foo (Data)
VALUES ('blah')
END
Connection 2
USE tempdb
SET NOCOUNT ON
SET CONTEXT_INFO 0x
DECLARE #Output TABLE(ID INT)
WHILE 1 = 1
BEGIN
/*Clear out table variable from previous loop*/
DELETE FROM #Output
/*Insert 1000 records*/
INSERT INTO Foo (Data)
OUTPUT inserted.ID INTO #Output
SELECT TOP 1000 NEWID()
FROM sys.all_columns
IF EXISTS(SELECT * FROM #Output HAVING MAX(ID) - MIN(ID) <> 999 )
BEGIN
/*Set Context Info so other connection inserting
a single record in a loop terminates itself*/
DECLARE #stop VARBINARY(128)
SET #stop = CAST('stop' AS VARBINARY(128))
SET CONTEXT_INFO #stop
/*Return results for inspection*/
SELECT ID, DENSE_RANK() OVER (ORDER BY Grp) AS ContigSection
FROM
(SELECT ID, ID - ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY [ID]) AS Grp
FROM #Output) O
ORDER BY ID
RETURN
END
END
Yes, they will be contiguous because the INSERT is atomic: complete success or full rollback. It is also performed as a single unit of work: you wont get any "interleaving" with other processes
However (or to put your mind at rest!), consider the OUTPUT clause
DECLARE #KeyStore TABLE (ID int NOT NULL)
INSERT INTO Foo (Data)
OUTPUT INSERTED.ID INTO #KeyStore (ID) --this line
SELECT TOP 1000 Data
FROM SomeOtherTable
WHERE SomeColumn = #SomeParameter
If you want the Identity values for multiple rows use OUTPUT:
DECLARE #NewIDs table (PKColumn int)
INSERT INTO Foo (Data)
OUTPUT INSERTED.PKColumn
INTO #NewIDs
SELECT TOP 1000 Data
FROM SomeOtherTable
WHERE SomeColumn = #SomeParameter
you now have the entire set of values in the #NewIDs table. You can add any columns from the Foo table into the #NewIDs table and insert those columns as well.
It is not good practice to attach any sort of meaning whatsoever to identity values. You should assume that they are nothing more than integers guaranteed to be unique within the scope of your table.
Try adding the following:
option(maxdop 1)