I am attempting to create a form that can import data from another database into access, assign an import ID to all the records, copy that data into a master database, and then delete the imported databases so the only remaining databases are the master databases.
I am getting stuck on assigning the import ID. I would like the user to be able to define it in a form and hit a button that executes assigning the value in the form to all the new sets of data. Since this column is not defined in the original set of data I figured the easiest way to do this would be by setting the default value on the master database before copying the data over. However I cannot find a way to change this value without clicking over to the form and changing it manually, which is the exact opposite of what I need to happen.
The reason that I am trying to add the import ID is that I need to nest child tables in the main table and the existing ID starts at 1 for every database and does not remain unique. I figure that I can use the import ID and the existing ID to create a relationship.
Any help is appreciated!
what are you porting to (another access DB or an mysql/mssql?)
but you should be able to set a field in both databases being a integer and using a form to set that field data to whatever the user enters (remember to parse). After the data is set on our outgoing DB you can just push to your master like normal (unless i have not understood the question?) to drop a database in SQL use
DROP DATABASE database_name
You could also use java or .net to delete the database manually after you run you update
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Any way to edit data on MS-Access form using SQL View with two tables
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Closed 2 years ago.
I'm using MS Access 2016 and SQL Server 2012.
I have single table with a schemabound view over the table. Our design was to allow our users to insert data through the view so we can do some id lookups for them and audit who inserted the record using an instead of insert trigger.
No matter how I configure it, Access doesn't want to let me add records to the view. If I use the table, it works as expected and it lets me insert new records.
I've tried the following:
Opening the external table and try to add new record at bottom - no luck
Creating an "Update" query - no luck
Creating an "Append" query - no luck
Creating a form, setting the view as a source, and setting Data Entry = Yes - no luck
Is what I'm trying to do even possible? I come from a SQL/C# background, and have only basic MSAccess skills. Any help is appreciated!
EDIT: I found out the View had a group by when it shouldn't have. I corrected that, but now it is complaining that it is not updatable because there are multiple underlying tables.
EDIT2: I've made progress but it's not ideal.
More info:
This view represents a datawarehouse fact, and joins to two dimension tables to get business keys.
I was able to get this to work by creating a "dummy" table with all the same fields, then creating a view over that. I was able to insert, but the data comes back "deleted" immediately because my instead of trigger fires.
Data went to the right place, but obviously the view doesn't show any data since it's not actually querying the correct tables anymore.
Clearly the view is irrelevant now, and I'll likely write the trigger over the dummy table.
It's not ideal, but I think my solution will be to have them insert through this dummy table, and then have a second view that does the joins so they can view the results.
I appreciate the detailed answer that was given, but unfortunately it didn't help this situation.
If the view is up-datable from SSMS, then it will be so in Access. So, before you try anything in Access, you have to first ensure that the view is up-datable in SSMS. So not all SQL views are up-datable.
You would do beyond well to test/check this in SSMS.
Once you done this, then you have to link the table from access. (and if you messed around with modify to the view, then delete the linked view in access and re-link). YOU MUST delete the access link and re-link.
And the linking process needs extra CARE. WHEN you link, you will be asked for a primary key for the view. Because a view can have multiple PK's (as a result of several tables), then Access can't know or guess. And far worse is that a SQL view does not in fact have a defined PK, and there is no command or means that Access can use to determine this. So you are PROMPTED during that link process. I note this issue, since if you are using some VBA re-link code, then if you re-link and change the database (or server), then during that re-link process, the PK setting you had will be lost. You ONLY get this prompt during a link of a new table - not a re-link. So, keep this important detail in mind.
You can after the fact (after linking a table) execute the following command to re-enable or "set" which column is to be the PK with this command in Access:
I in fact use this routine:
Sub createPK(strTable As String, strPK As String)
CurrentDb.Execute "CREATE UNIQUE INDEX " & strPK & _
" ON " & strTable & " (" & strPK & ") WITH PRIMARY"
End Sub
So, to set a PK for a linked view, then I use this:
Call createPK("dbo_tblHotels","ID")
As a FYI:
The above command DOES NOT create a index in access for that linked view, but is a MEANS to ONLY TELL Access what column to use for the PK. So, in this context, the create index command is not creating a index, but is the means/approach/how/process in which you can tell/set in Access what column is to be used for the PK view. As noted, you only need to do the above if you using code to re-link (or create) a table (view in this case).
So, if you using the Access UI, and you link to a view? Then Access will prompt/ask you to choose a column for the PK. You can as noted after linking use the above routine/command in Access to set which column is to be used as the PK if you missed the prompt, or as noted are using some VBA code to re-link.
A re-link (refresh) with the Access UI to the SAME database will preserve the PK setting. But if you change the connection string (database or server name), then the PK setting will be lost.
First, this is a really good answer to a similar question. Try adding an INSTEAD OF trigger to the view in SQL Server. In order to insert into a view the key columns must all be present and each table must be UNION'ed together. INSTEAD OF trigger can be made to do exactly as you wish.
In my Access application's data entry form I'm using Me.Refresh to show the user the new value of a calculated field based on data they entered in a non-calculated field. The purpose is to give them the deadline for doing a job next.
This Access app is using linked SQL Server 2012 tables via ODBC. The calculated field is in the underlying SQL Server table, not part of the Access Record Source query because I want to store the calculated value in the actual data, not just as an interface element.
The calculation is very simple:
nextjob = jobdate + 79
So I have the field for jobdate set to run Me.Refresh after update. All well and good.
The problem is that if the user updates jobdate, triggers the refresh by moving to another field, then returns to the jobdate field and changes the date they entered Access throws a "The data has been changed by another user" error.
I tested the method using native Access tables and the problem does not occur. However the data needs to stay on the server, so moving to native tables is not a solution for me.
There are several possible solutions.
1- If it's always jobdate + 79, don't store it at all, use a view that has the calculated field.
2- Use Me.Requery instead of Me.Refresh. If the form shows multiple records, you must navigate back to the current record, you can use Me.Bookmark for that.
3- Move the calculation into the Access frontend - make nextjob an ordinary column and set it in the form, so it isn't another user (the server) that updates the data.
In our web application we want to use DB2 row level access control to control who can view what. Each table would contain a column named userId which contain the user id. We want log-in users be able to see only row's usereId column with theirs id. I have seen db2 permission examples using DB2 session_id or user, for example taking DB2 given Banking example :
CREATE PERMISSION EXAMPLEBANKING.IN_TELLER_ROW_ACCESS
ON EXAMPLEBANKING.CUSTOMER FOR ROWS WHERE BRANCH in (
SELECT HOME_BRANCH FROM EXAMPLEBANKING.INTERNAL_INFO WHERE EMP_ID = SESSION_USER
)
ENFORCED FOR ALL ACCESS
ENABLE;
Our table gets updated dynamically hence we don't know what row get added or deleted hence we don't know what are all the user Id in the table.
At any given time, different user would log-on to the web to view information retrieve from the tables, the permission declaration above only take SESSION_USER as the input, can I change it to something like Java function parameter where one can pass arbitrary id to the permission? If not then how do I handle different log-in users at arbitrary time? Or do I just keep changing SESSION_USER dynamically as new user login (using "db2 set" ??)? If so then is this the best practice for this kind use case?
Thanks in advance.
Since the user ID in question is application-provided, not originating from the database, using SESSION_USER, which equals to the DB2 authorization ID, would not be appropriate. Instead you might use the CLIENT_USERID variable, as described here.
This might become a little tricky if you use connection pooling in your application, as the variable must be set each time after obtaining a connection from the pool and reset before returning it to the pool.
Check out Trusted Contexts, this is exactly why they exist. The linked article is fairly old (you can use trusted contexts with PHP, ruby, etc. now).
I'm currently creating my first real life project in Pervasive. The task is to map a certain XML structure containing orders (as in shops and products) to 3 tables I created myself. These tables rest inside a MS-SQL-Server instance.
All of the tables have a unique key called "id", an automatically incremented column. I've dropped this column from all mappings so that Pervasive will not try to fill it itself.
For certain calculations, for a split key in one of the tables and for references to the created records in other tables, I will need the id that the database has just created. For that, I have googled the answer. I can use "select ##identity;" as a statement, and this returns the id that has most recently been created for the current connection. This means that in Pervasive, I will have to execute this statement using the already existing target connection object.
But how to do that? I am quite sure that I will need a JDImport or DJExport object, but how to get one associated with the current connection that Pervasive inserts the records by?
Or is there any other way to handle this auto increment when I need to reference the id in other tables?
Not sure how things work in Pervasive, but you may run into issues with ##identity,. Scope_identity() would probably be safer but may still not work in Pervasive.
Hopefully your tables have a natural key in addition to the generated id, in which case you can select your id based on the natural key. This will avoid any issues you may have with disparate sessions and scope.
If there is anyone looking this post up and wonders about the answer, it's "You can't". Pervasive does not allow access to their very own connection object, the one they use to query the database. Without access to it, you cannot guaranteed fetch the right id. The solution for us was this: We used a stored procedure which we called in the Before-Transformation event that created the header record and returned the id and an optional error message as a table. We executed it and it returns the id we then save and use throughout our mapping.
I have an access 'application' (.adp file), when it opens i have it update an admin database with the username and time open. When it closes it updates the admin database with username time closed - these are sperate records in the events table so it looks like
username,dbaction,time
bob,open,13:00
gareth,open,13:05
bob,close,14:00
If the user where to open the db twice there would be 2 open and 2 close actions recorded but no way to establish which database session each of the 2 close events belonged.
What i want to store in this table is a unique identifier to link the open and close actions together with 'each session'. Preferably i would like to use a property ov the application object in vba if something exists. Does it even store the time the db was opened? I could generate my own id when databases are opened and store it in a variable until close, but id prefer to use something in built. Any ideas?
I do this using a hidden unbound form which opens on startup. In that form I insert the record into the table. I then fetch the autonumber ID (or whatever SQL Server calls that field.) of that record and store in a text control. If you do any development and you hit an error and reset the running code you lose all global variables thus I prefer using forms to store these kinds of variables.
In the hidden forms On Close event I then update the same record with the date/time exited. I've been using this technique for well over a decade without any problems.
You could have a global 'Id_session' variable, initiated at startup (random generated uniqueIdentifier for example) that you will store in an 'id_Session' column of your 'event' table. When the database is opened, the record is inserted in the 'event' table, and the record identifier is stored as a global variable. When the database is closed, the existing record is identified (through the id_session value) and updated in the database.
In fact, I do not understand the interest of an inbuilt identifier instead of this solution.
There is likely a method that runs in an access database when it is opened. In this you could generate a random identifier and store it in a global variable. When writing your log line you could include this identifier allow you to trace login and logout.
Update: You can use the code shown here to generate a GUID which is pretty much gauranteed to be unique so this should do what you want. If it doesnt you might need to clarify as I'm not understanding the question.
All these answers seem to me to be too clever by half.
What I do is add an Autonumber field to the table I'm logging these in, and then capture the Autonumber value of the startup event record and store it somewhere in (usually in a hidden field on the app's startup form) for use at shutdown to write the shutdown event with the ID number of the startup event.
is HWND going to be unique for 2 access applications opened at the same time on possibly on the same pc or 2 different pcs?