I have a web application and the database it is on my client building. I want to know if the CRUD (create, update, delete) actions made from my application of "someone" for any reason, done it from SQL Server Management Studio.
Thanks in advance
You could define a trigger for update/insert on the tables you want to audit, then adapt the following code from this MSDN article on AppName() :
DECLARE #CurrentApp varchar(40)
SET #CurrentApp = APP_NAME()
IF #CurrentApp <> 'SQL Server Management Studio - Query'
PRINT 'This process was not started by a SQL Server Management Studio query session.';
I believe it might be open to spoofing though, as I think programs can specify the application name in the connection string.
Related
I used the Microsoft OLE DB Provider for SQL Anywhere to create a linked server, it shows remote databases and tables, I can read data, but writing data seems to work only using OPENQUERY() and when doing the connection_authentication using EXEC ... AT ... directly in the script.
How can I have the SQL Server do the authentication automatically when opening a connection?
How can I make normal write operations work without OPENQUERY()?
Sorry for not adding detailed error messages, I will add them later maybe, when I have access to the server again... But they were not meaningful anyway, i.e. when the weird authentication was missing, it just said "could not insert" or "failed" instead of indicating any authentication issue.
How to get the real error messages that come from Sybase?
Details:
SAP Sybase SQL Anywhere 16 (OEM Authenticated Edition) <-> MS SQL Server 2014
EXEC 'SET TEMPORARY OPTION CONNECTION_AUTHENTICATION=''Company=...''' AT linkedserver
INSERT INTO OPENQUERY(linkedserver, 'SELECT column FROM table WHERE 0=1') VALUES ('')
...that's not nice.
Even more details:
This is how I created the linked server
This is the authentication I'm talking about
Historically we have a product which installed two databases on the same server. There is an custom application which assumes that both databases are on the same server.
In a new version they have split the databases onto two separate servers and obviously now the custom application is giving the error:
Database 'DB_2' does not exist. Make sure that the
name is entered correctly.
Is there anything I can do in the SQL Server setup so that the application is still able to query the DB_2 database without modifying the custom application?
The query being used is structured as follows:
Use DB_2
SELECT * FROM MyUser.MyTable
You can create a linked Server, then Create a Database DB_2 add a Synonym for different objects. something like below.
use master
GO;
EXEC master.dbo.sp_addlinkedserver #server = N'RemoteServer', #srvproduct=N'SQL Server'
GO
CREATE DATABASE [DB_2];
GO
USE [DB_2]
GO
CREATE SYNONYM [MyUser].[MyTable] FOR [RemoteServer].[db].[MyUser].[MyTable]
GO
You can use Linked Servers feature. In SSMS go to Server Object/Linked Servers folder in Object Explorer. And link second server. So you can query another DB using this SELECT * FROM [Linked_Server_Name].[Database_Name].[Schema_Name].[Table_Name]
I'm having a very strange problem with a fresh install I have of SQL Server 2008 Express edition (yeah it's a bit old now, but whatever). When I connect via SQL Server Management Studio, I can both read and edit data (update or insert), but when I connect via my web application's data access layer, which uses SqlConnection and SqlCommand to try and update and insert data in tables, no changes occur in the database. The strange thing is that the code runs as if no error had occurred though; no exceptions are thrown, and my update statement causes SqlCommand.ExecuteNonQuery to return 1, indicating that supposedly 1 row has been updated. However, it hasn't. The application can, however, read data from the database via select statements.
Does anyone have any idea what's going on here? I even tried tracing SQL Server using ExpressProfiler, and its output seemed to indicate that the update should have occurred:
exec sp_executesql N'UPDATE Match SET TicketsSold=#ticketsSold WHERE MatchId=#matchId',N'#matchId int,#ticketsSold int',#matchId=1,#ticketsSold=1234
go
Yet TicketsSold stays at the same value (123) it was at before, and does not update to 1234. Is there some kind of "silent" read-only mode SQL Server 2008 Express could be running in? I'm baffled as to why the database isn't being updated.
By the way, this is a proper SQL Server database I created in SSMS, not some attached MDF file that resides in the same directory as my web application. The database is not set to "read-only" in database options, and I'm pretty sure that the user that the web application is logging in as has read/write permission on the MDF file; it is logging in as the same user I am logging in as using SSMS - with integrated Windows security - and I am able to update/insert as that user via SSMS.
Thanks to shf301 in the comments - I was creating a transaction but forgetting to call .Commit before the end of the using block. :-D I put that in and now it works.
I'm using SSEUtil to automatically create a functional test database from the schema derived from my development database (SQL Server 2008 R2) as part of my build process. This allows me to keep the two databases in-sync (schema-wise) without running SQL repository tests against my development database.
I recently added a full text index to a table for the first time for this project in my development schema and now when I attempt to apply the schema to a newly created unit test database I get the following error when it executes the SQL to create the full text catalog:
CREATE FULLTEXT CATALOG [FullTextCatalog] AUTHORIZATION [dbo]
GO
Cannot use full-text search in user instance.
[SqlException Number 9982, Class 16, State 100, Line 1]
I've searched high and low. The only help I found was on another site where someone suggested "attaching to the parent database." I have no idea what that means. And I have no idea what this error means. What is a "user instance"?
Can anyone suggest a way around this? Is there a better way to keep two database schemas in-sync for continuous integration?
Either
User must have CREATE FULLTEXT CATALOG permission on the database, or be a member of the db_owner, or db_ddladmin fixed database roles.
or
you won’t be able to use full text catalogues if the SQL instance does not have it installed. Make sure the SQL server instance has the full text service running.
Here are two ways of testing whether this feature installed or not. This feature is available for all editions of SQL Server 2005 and 2008 (including SQL Express)
Check the services applet (run -> type 'services.msc') for this entry :
SQL Server FullText Search Or SQL Server FullText Search (SQLEXPRESS) (in case of SQL Express). Start this service of not running
Run the query "select fulltextserviceproperty('isfulltextinstalled')" in the Query analyzer. if the result is '1' then it is installed else not.
In the case of unavailability of this feature, you need to install by downloading the "SQLEXPR_ADV.EXE" from http://www.microsoft.com/express/sql/download/default.aspx
Reference taken from here
This is not really an answer to the question, but I came upon a similar issue with visual studio package manager when updating an entity framework code-first database (command update-database).
The problem was that I selected the wrong start-up project, and therefore visual studio was not using my connection string at all. It was connecting to a localdb instance, hence the cryptic error message "cannot use full text search in user instance". Once I made it connect to the actual database, it worked as expected.
I also came across this user instance issue. I have to admit that I only have basic knowledge of SSMS. Apparently I'm logged as the public user. How can I be a member of db_owner? I try to generate and script everything without using the GUI.
For example, if I execute this
ALTER AUTHORIZATION ON DATABASE::[dbname] TO sa;
EXEC sp_changedbowner 'sa';
I still get the Cannot use full-text search in user instance error with
USE [dbname]
CREATE FULLTEXT CATALOG [ftc_dbname] AS DEFAULT
GO
I have a weird problem here.
In short to the environment we have:
There is a (newly set up) Win2003 Server with a SQL Server 2005 Express database. I connect to it via a MS Access application.
Since I switched to the new server (restored a backup from the former server on it) all SPROCs (only in Access) have a ;1 after their name, hence cannot be found.
If I try to open a SPROC in Access (dbl click in overview), it asks for the parameter, then says cannot be found.
If I try to open, say, a report based on it, same result. If I change the name of the SPROC the report is based on to the name shown in the overview ( [sprocnam];1 ) it says "cannot be found" (of course, because the names did not change as one can see in Management Studio).
?!?
keep in mind that the Access-application worked fine with the database that I backed up on another server and restored to the newly set up server ...
Your help is greatly appreciated!
edit: I found a thread on SAP.com with someone experiencing the same problem, but without a solution: https://forums.sdn.sap.com/message.jspa?messageID=7947957
I can't tell why you have got this issue, but in In SQL Server you have the ability to create Numbered stored procedures. The procedures have the same name but may contain completely different code, look at this:
CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[spTest]
AS
BEGIN
SELECT ##MICROSOFTVERSION
END
GO
CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[spTest];2
AS
SELECT ##version
GO
EXEC spTest;1
EXEC spTest;2
I resolved the issue with an update of the clients office-installation to the latest service pack.
The one employee that notified me of the problem and me got new computers last week, and thus did not have the latest updates.