I need to use the clock on my SQL Server to write a time to one of my tables, so I thought I'd just use GETDATE(). The problem is that I'm getting an error because of my INSTEAD OF trigger. Is there a way to set one column to GETDATE() when another column is an identity column?
This is the Linq-to-SQL:
internal void LogProcessPoint(WorkflowCreated workflowCreated, int processCode)
{
ProcessLoggingRecord processLoggingRecord = new ProcessLoggingRecord()
{
ProcessCode = processCode,
SubId = workflowCreated.SubId,
EventTime = DateTime.Now // I don't care what this is. SQL Server will use GETDATE() instead.
};
this.Database.Add<ProcessLoggingRecord>(processLoggingRecord);
}
This is the table. EventTime is what I want to have as GETDATE(). I don't want the column to be null.
And here is the trigger:
ALTER TRIGGER [Master].[ProcessLoggingEventTimeTrigger]
ON [Master].[ProcessLogging]
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
SET NOCOUNT ON;
SET IDENTITY_INSERT [Master].[ProcessLogging] ON;
INSERT INTO ProcessLogging (ProcessLoggingId, ProcessCode, SubId, EventTime, LastModifiedUser)
SELECT ProcessLoggingId, ProcessCode, SubId, GETDATE(), LastModifiedUser FROM inserted
SET IDENTITY_INSERT [Master].[ProcessLogging] OFF;
END
Without getting into all of the variations I've tried, this last attempt produces this error:
InvalidOperationException
Member AutoSync failure. For members to be AutoSynced after insert, the type must either have an auto-generated identity, or a key that is not modified by the database after insert.
I could remove EventTime from my entity, but I don't want to do that. If it was gone though, then it would be NULL during the INSERT and GETDATE() would be used.
Is there a way that I can simply use GETDATE() on the EventTime column for INSERTs?
Note: I do not want to use C#'s DateTime.Now for two reasons:
1. One of these inserts is generated by SQL Server itself (from another stored procedure)
2. Times can be different on different machines, and I'd like to know exactly how fast my processes are happening.
Bob,
It seems you are attempting to solve two different problems here. One of which has to do with a L2S error with an Instead Of trigger and another with using the date on the SQL Server box for your column. I think you might have problems with Instead of Triggers and L2S. You might want to try an approach that uses an After trigger, like this. I think this will solve both your problems.
ALTER TRIGGER [Master].[ProcessLoggingEventTimeTrigger]
ON [Master].[ProcessLogging]
AFTER INSERT
AS
BEGIN
UPDATE [Master].[ProcessLogging] SET EventTime = GETDATE() WHERE ProcessLoggingId = (SELECT ProcessLoggingId FROM inserted)
END
Don't use a trigger, use a defualt:
create table X
(id int identity primary key,
value varchar(20),
eventdate datetime default(getdate()))
insert into x(value) values('Try')
insert into x(value) values('this')
select * from X
It's much better.
Have you tried using a default value of (getdate()) for the EventTime colum?
You wouldn't then need to set the value in the trigger, it would be set automatically.
A default value is used when you don't explicitly supply a value, e.g.
INSERT INTO ProcessLogging (ProcessLoggingId, ProcessCode, SubId, LastModifiedUser)
SELECT ProcessLoggingId, ProcessCode, SubId, LastModifiedUser FROM inserted
Bob,
I see it is better to don't use triggers in SQL server; it have a lot of disadvantage and not recommended for database performance enhancements. Please check SQL Authority blog for more information about the Triggers problems.
You can achieve what you want without Triggers using the following steps:
Change Eventime column to allow null
Set Eventtime column Default Value to GetDate(). So it always will have a the current insertion value.
Don't set Eventtime value to DateTime.Now from your LinqToSQL code, so it will take the default value in the SQL Server.
Related
I have the trigger below and am trying to understand what it is supposed to do. I am not a dba but am trying to understand the script below.
Does it mean every time an update (insert, delete, update) happens with the IT01_Incorporates table, the DateUpdated column is updated with the current date?
I actually would like to know, by applying the trigger below, when is the DateUpdated column supposed to be updated? insert, delete and update?
I also would like to understand the meaning of : set nocount on.
Thank you very much
DateUpdated column is datetime type
CREATE trigger [dbo].[TR_IT01_Update]
on [dbo].[IT01_Incorporates]
for update
as
set nocount on
begin
update IT01_Incorporates
set DateUpdated = getdate()
where exists (
select 1 from inserted where incorpuid = IT01_Incorporates.incorpuid
)
end
If you look at the script, you will see in the header lines, the clause for update. This indicates that it is for update only.
To make for inserts and updates, you would have to change it to say for insert, update. You could also add , delete to make it fire on DELETEs as well, but the trigger will not work in that case because there would no longer be any record to UPDATE.
Lets say the following SQL statement was added to a .NET program one year ago:
UPDATE IT01_Incorporates set field1=#Field1, field2=#Field2, Field3=#Field3 where id=#id
Lets say one of your DBA colleagues altered the table yesterday as follows:
ALTER TABLE IT01_Incorporates ADD DateUpdated datetime
Instead of modifying the code; he/she may create a trigger as a temporary measure to ensure that DateUpdated is also updated with every update.
I have a trigger on a table for insert, delete, update that on the first line gets the current date with GetDate() method.
The trigger will compare the deleted and inserted table to determine what field has been changed and stores in another table the id, datetime and the field changed. This combination must be unique
A stored procedure does an insert and an update sequentially on the table. Sometimes I get a violation of primary key and I suspect that the GetDate() returns the same value.
How can I make the GetDate() return different values in the trigger.
EDIT
Here is the code of the trigger
CREATE TRIGGER dbo.TR
ON table
FOR DELETE, INSERT, UPDATE
AS
BEGIN
SET NoCount ON
DECLARE #dt Datetime
SELECT #dt = GetDate()
insert tableLog (id, date, field, old, new)
select I.id, #dt, 'field', D.field, I.field
from INSERTED I LEFT JOIN DELETED D ON I.id=D.id
where IsNull(I.field, -1) <> IsNull(D.field, -1)
END
and the code of the calls
...
insert into table ( anotherfield)
values (#anotherfield)
if ##rowcount=1 SET #ID=##Identity
...
update table
set field = #field
where Id = #ID
...
Sometimes the GetDate() between the 2 calls (insert and update) takes 7 milliseconds and sometimes it has the same value.
That's not exactly full solution but try using SYSDATETIME instead and of course make sure that target table can store up datetime2 up to microseconds.
Note that you can't force different datetime regardless of precision (unless you will start counting up to ticks) as stuff can just happen at the same time wihthin given precision.
If stretching up to microseconds won't solve the issue on practical level, I think you will have to either redesign this logging schema (perhaps add identity column on top of what you have) or add some dirty trick - like make this insert in try catch block and add like microsecond (nanosecond?) in a loop until you insert successfully. Definitely not s.t. I would recommend.
Look at this answer: SQL Server: intrigued by GETDATE()
If you are inserting multiple ROWS, they will all use the same value of GetDate(), so you can try wrapping it in a UDF to get unique values. But as I said, this is just a guess unless you post the code of your trigger so we can see what you are actually doing?
It sounds like you're trying to create an audit trail - but now you want to forge some of the entries?
I'd suggest instead adding a rowversion column to the table and including that in your uniqueness criteria - either instead of or as well as the datetime value that is being recorded.
In this way, even if two rows are inserted with identical date/time data, you can still tell the actual insertion order.
I'm trying to get a the key-value back after an INSERT-statement.
Example:
I've got a table with the attributes name and id. id is a generated value.
INSERT INTO table (name) VALUES('bob');
Now I want to get the id back in the same step. How is this done?
We're using Microsoft SQL Server 2008.
No need for a separate SELECT...
INSERT INTO table (name)
OUTPUT Inserted.ID
VALUES('bob');
This works for non-IDENTITY columns (such as GUIDs) too
Use SCOPE_IDENTITY() to get the new ID value
INSERT INTO table (name) VALUES('bob');
SELECT SCOPE_IDENTITY()
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms190315.aspx
INSERT INTO files (title) VALUES ('whatever');
SELECT * FROM files WHERE id = SCOPE_IDENTITY();
Is the safest bet since there is a known issue with OUTPUT Clause conflict on tables with triggers. Makes this quite unreliable as even if your table doesn't currently have any triggers - someone adding one down the line will break your application. Time Bomb sort of behaviour.
See msdn article for deeper explanation:
http://blogs.msdn.com/b/sqlprogrammability/archive/2008/07/11/update-with-output-clause-triggers-and-sqlmoreresults.aspx
Entity Framework performs something similar to gbn's answer:
DECLARE #generated_keys table([Id] uniqueidentifier)
INSERT INTO Customers(FirstName)
OUTPUT inserted.CustomerID INTO #generated_keys
VALUES('bob');
SELECT t.[CustomerID]
FROM #generated_keys AS g
JOIN dbo.Customers AS t
ON g.Id = t.CustomerID
WHERE ##ROWCOUNT > 0
The output results are stored in a temporary table variable, and then selected back to the client. Have to be aware of the gotcha:
inserts can generate more than one row, so the variable can hold more than one row, so you can be returned more than one ID
I have no idea why EF would inner join the ephemeral table back to the real table (under what circumstances would the two not match).
But that's what EF does.
SQL Server 2008 or newer only. If it's 2005 then you're out of luck.
There are many ways to exit after insert
When you insert data into a table, you can use the OUTPUT clause to
return a copy of the data that’s been inserted into the table. The
OUTPUT clause takes two basic forms: OUTPUT and OUTPUT INTO. Use the
OUTPUT form if you want to return the data to the calling application.
Use the OUTPUT INTO form if you want to return the data to a table or
a table variable.
DECLARE #MyTableVar TABLE (id INT,NAME NVARCHAR(50));
INSERT INTO tableName
(
NAME,....
)OUTPUT INSERTED.id,INSERTED.Name INTO #MyTableVar
VALUES
(
'test',...
)
IDENT_CURRENT: It returns the last identity created for a particular table or view in any session.
SELECT IDENT_CURRENT('tableName') AS [IDENT_CURRENT]
SCOPE_IDENTITY: It returns the last identity from a same session and the same scope. A scope is a stored procedure/trigger etc.
SELECT SCOPE_IDENTITY() AS [SCOPE_IDENTITY];
##IDENTITY: It returns the last identity from the same session.
SELECT ##IDENTITY AS [##IDENTITY];
##IDENTITY Is a system function that returns the last-inserted identity value.
There are multiple ways to get the last inserted ID after insert command.
##IDENTITY : It returns the last Identity value generated on a Connection in current session, regardless of Table and the scope of statement that produced the value
SCOPE_IDENTITY(): It returns the last identity value generated by the insert statement in the current scope in the current connection regardless of the table.
IDENT_CURRENT(‘TABLENAME’) : It returns the last identity value generated on the specified table regardless of Any connection, session or scope. IDENT_CURRENT is not limited by scope and session; it is limited to a specified table.
Now it seems more difficult to decide which one will be exact match for my requirement.
I mostly prefer SCOPE_IDENTITY().
If you use select SCOPE_IDENTITY() along with TableName in insert statement, you will get the exact result as per your expectation.
Source : CodoBee
The best and most sure solution is using SCOPE_IDENTITY().
Just you have to get the scope identity after every insert and save it in a variable because you can call two insert in the same scope.
ident_current and ##identity may be they work but they are not safe scope. You can have issues in a big application
declare #duplicataId int
select #duplicataId = (SELECT SCOPE_IDENTITY())
More detail is here Microsoft docs
You can use scope_identity() to select the ID of the row you just inserted into a variable then just select whatever columns you want from that table where the id = the identity you got from scope_identity()
See here for the MSDN info http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms190315.aspx
Recommend to use SCOPE_IDENTITY() to get the new ID value, But NOT use "OUTPUT Inserted.ID"
If the insert statement throw exception, I except it throw it directly. But "OUTPUT Inserted.ID" will return 0, which maybe not as expected.
This is how I use OUTPUT INSERTED, when inserting to a table that uses ID as identity column in SQL Server:
'myConn is the ADO connection, RS a recordset and ID an integer
Set RS=myConn.Execute("INSERT INTO M2_VOTELIST(PRODUCER_ID,TITLE,TIMEU) OUTPUT INSERTED.ID VALUES ('Gator','Test',GETDATE())")
ID=RS(0)
You can append a select statement to your insert statement.
Integer myInt =
Insert into table1 (FName) values('Fred'); Select Scope_Identity();
This will return a value of the identity when executed scaler.
* Parameter order in the connection string is sometimes important. * The Provider parameter's location can break the recordset cursor after adding a row. We saw this behavior with the SQLOLEDB provider.
After a row is added, the row fields are not available, UNLESS the Provider is specified as the first parameter in the connection string. When the provider is anywhere in the connection string except as the first parameter, the newly inserted row fields are not available. When we moved the the Provider to the first parameter, the row fields magically appeared.
After doing an insert into a table with an identity column, you can reference ##IDENTITY to get the value:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa933167%28v=sql.80%29.aspx
I am trying to add a check constraint which verity if after an update the new value (which was inserted) is greater than old values which is already stored in table.
For example i have a "price" column which already stores value 100, if the update comes with 101 the is ok, if 99 comes then my constraint should reject the update process. Can this behavior be achieved using check constraints or should i try to use triggers or functions ?
Please advice me regarding this...
Thanks,
Mircea
Check constraints can't access the previous value of the column. You would need to use a trigger for this.
An example of such a trigger would be
CREATE TRIGGER DisallowPriceDecrease
ON Products
AFTER UPDATE
AS
IF NOT UPDATE(price)
RETURN
IF EXISTS(SELECT * FROM inserted i
JOIN deleted d
ON i.primarykey = d.primarykey
AND i.price< d.price)
BEGIN
ROLLBACK TRANSACTION
RAISERROR('Prices may not be decreased', 16, 1)
END
Triggers start as a quick fix, and end with a maintenance nightmare. The two big problems with triggers are:
It's hard to see when a trigger is called. You can easily write an update statement without being aware that a trigger will run.
When triggers start triggering other triggers, it becomes hard to tell what will happen.
As an alternative, wrap access to the table in a stored procedure. For example:
create table TestTable (productId int, price numeric(6,2))
insert into TestTable (productId, price) values (1,5.0)
go
create procedure dbo.IncreasePrice(
#productId int,
#newPrice numeric(6,2))
with execute as owner
as
begin
update dbo.TestTable
set price = #newPrice
where productId = #productId
and price <= #newPrice
return ##ROWCOUNT
end
go
Now if you try to decrease the price, the procedure will fail and return 0:
exec IncreasePrice 1, 4.0
select * from TestTable --> 1, 5.00
exec IncreasePrice 1, 6.0
select * from TestTable --> 1, 6.00
Stored procedures are pretty easy to read. Compared to triggers, they'll cause you a lot less headaches. You can enforce the use of stored procedures by not giving any user the right to UPDATE tables. That's a good practice anyway.
Using SQL Server 2005
When i insert the date it should compare the date in the table.
If it is equal with other date, it should display a error message and also it should allow only to insert the next date.
For Example
Table1
Date
20091201
20091202
Insert into table1 values('20091202')
The above query should not allow to insert the same value
Insert into table1 values('20091204')
The above query also should not allow to insert the long gap date.
The query should allow only the next date.
It should not allow same date and long gap date.
How to insert a query with this condition.
Is Possible in SQL or VB.Net
Need SQL Query or VB.Net code Help
You could use a where clause to ensure that the previous day is present in the table, and the current day is not:
insert into table1 ([dateColumn])
select '20091204'
where exists (
select * from table1 where [dateColumn] = dateadd(d,-1,'20091204')
)
and not exists (
select * from table1 where [dateColumn] = '20091204'
)
if ##rowcount <> 1
raiserror ('Oops', 16, 1)
If the insert succeeds, ##rowcount will be set to 1. Otherwise, an error is returned to VB using raiserror.
Why not just have a table of dates set up in advance, and update a row once you want to "insert" that date?
I'm not sure I understand the point of inserting a new date only once, and never allowing a gap. Could you describe your business problem in a little more detail?
Of course you could use an IDENTITY column, and then have a computed column or a view that calculates the date from the number of days since (some date). But IDENTITY columns do not guarantee contiguity, nor do they even guarantee uniqueness on their own (unless you set up suc a constraint separately).
Preventing duplicates should be done at the table level with a unique constraint, not with a query. You can check for duplicates first so that you can handle errors in your own way (rather than let the engine raise an exception for you), but that shouldn't be your only check.
Sounds like your date field should just be unique with auto-increment.