We have a program where users can specify their database connection parameters. The usual suspects including host, port, username, password, and table name. We are connecting to the database using NHibernate. What we'd like to do is be able to build the configuration with NHibernate and then test the connection parameters before continuing with other operations; notifying the user of failure.
Is this possible to do through NHibernate, or will it require using each database type we support's specific driver and creating a custom TestConnection() method for each type?
I realize this is an old post - but I guess an answer to a question never hurts.
I don't think there is a way to explicitly tell NHibernate to test out the connection string. However, when you instantiate the SessionFactory it will attempt to connect to the database. You could wrap your SessionFactory creation in a Try/Catch and handle the error that way.
I use Fluent NHibernate, but I'm sure the following example will still explain the situation.
Dim sf as SessionFactory
Try
sf = CreateSessionFactory()
Catch ex as FluentNHibernate.Cfg.FluentConfigurationException
Messagebox.Show(ex.InnerException.Message)
End Try
The ex.InnerException.Message contains the actual error and will tell you if:
The connection string was invalid
The server could not be found
The user/pass could not be authenticated
To configure Nhibernate you have two options:
Set the dialect when you are building the session factory. This will assign reasonable default value to Nhibernate's ADO and other configuration values.
Manually set the configuration values.
That said, at some point, you need to configure Nhibernate to use the appropriate driver for the database you want to talk to. Which means you need to be able to build Session Factories of different types (your supported database types). To do this you need more than just "host, port, username, password, and table name". You need to know the database type(Dialect).
If you intend to just try to connect the database with every driver available to you not knowing what the database type is, you may run into problems when the database and the dialect don't match. Imagine you use a SqlServer2008 dialect on SqlServer2005 machine. The difference in dialect can cause a particular SqlServer2008 feature you are using not to, obviously, work. Moreover, if you don't stick to basic SQL through out all your code, you may be generating Sql that works, say, in PostgreSql but not in SqlServer (Think sequences and such).
To learn more about configuring Nhibernate read:
Chapter 3: Session Factory Configuration. Specially sections 3.3, 3.4, 3.5 which talk about configuration parameters.
Last note, Nhibernate supports multiple databases. But, for complex domain layers where you rely on database specific constructs, your code doesn't.
Related
I need a way to identify whether a given port at a given address is running an instance of Microsoft SQL Server, IBM DB2 Server, or neither, from Python.
My first thought is that I can use Python's telnet library, telnetlib, like this:
import telnetlib
import socket
def checkDBServerType(address, port):
try:
tn = telnetlib.Telnet(address, port)
except socket.error:
return None
tn.write(<something>)
if <something-else> in tn.read_eager():
return "MSSQL"
else:
return "IBMDB2"
The issue is, I have no idea what to send. The user will also be providing my program with a username, password, and database name, so those are also available if that helps.
Also, this is my first post on ServerFault although I've used StackOverflow regularly and SuperUser sometimes. Is this the proper venue for my question, or would it be more appropriate on StackOverflow? (I can't decide if server admin type people or programmer type people would be more likely to be able to help.)
Since you're just looking for a heuristic, I'd say that merely being able to connect to the default port would be a good first cut. So, for instance, if you can connect to TCP 1433, you can reasonably say that that machine is running a default instance of SQL Server. It's not perfect of course (i.e. you could get false positives or false negatives), but it's pretty good. Only you can answer whether it's good enough for you.
You can't simply "talk" to a database server and expect it to tell you what kind of software it's running; there is no standard common protocol to connect to database servers, and although the query language (SQL) is quite standardized, the underlying connection is based on a protocol which is specific to each database system; these protocols are also generally not text-based, thus you can't simply open a socket to a database server and write something on it; also, they are usually never used directly by client applications: every DBMS provides a set of connection libraries which neatly encapsulate them, so that you don't have to understand how to talk to the database server and can focus on actually querying its data.
Your best bet would be to grab the client connection libraries for SQL Server and DB2 and ask each of them to connect to the remote server; whetever one succeeds first will tell you what kind of server is sitting on the remote end.
I have a database which is not JDBC enabled where I am able to fire a query and get the result using an input stream. I want to access this using a map reduce program.
For a JDBC enabled database there are "DBInputFormat.java" and "DBConfiguration.java" files in Hadoop which take care of accessing the database and getting the result in a user-defined class which extends DBWritable and Writable interfaces.
Is there a way in which I can access the above mentioned non-JDBC database in the same fashion ?
I am not sure if your DB supports ODBC. If so you can try jdbc:odbc driver with DBInputFormat. I am not sure if this works as never tried this.
Another option which should be your final option is to implement your own FileInputFormat
I have 3 servers set up for SQL mirroring and automatic failover using a witness server. This works as expected.
Now my application that connects to the database, seems to have a problem when a failover occurs - I need to manually intervene and change connection strings for it to connect again.
The best solution I've found so far involves using Failover Partner parameter of the connection string, however it's neither intuitive nor complete: Data Source="Mirror";Failover Partner="Principal" found here.
From the example in the blog above (scenario #3) when the first failover occurs, and principal (failover partner) is unavailable, data source is used instead (which is the new principal). If it fails again (and I only tried within a limited period), it then comes up with an error message. This happens because the connection string is cached, so until this is refreshed, it will keep coming out with an error (it seems connection string refreshes ~5 mins after it encounters an error). If after failover I swap data source and failover partner, I will have one more silent failover again.
Is there a way to achieve fully automatic failover for applications that use mirroring databases too (without ever seeing the error)?
I can see potential workarounds using custom scripts that would poll currently active database node name and adjust connection string accordingly, however it seems like an overkill at the moment.
Read the blog post here
http://blogs.msdn.com/b/spike/archive/2010/12/15/running-a-database-mirror-setup-with-the-sqlbrowser-service-off-may-produce-unexpected-results.aspx
It explains what is happening, the failover partner is actually being read from the sql server not from your config. Run the query in that post to find out what is actually being used as the failover server. It will probably be a machine name that is not discoverable from where your client is running.
You can clear the application pool in the case a failover has happened. Not very nice I know ;-)
// ClearAllPools resets (or empties) the connection pool.
// If there are connections in use at the time of the call,
// they are marked appropriately and will be discarded
// (instead of being returned to the pool) when Close is called on them.
System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.ClearAllPools();
We use it when we change an underlying server via SQL Server alias, to enforce a "refresh" of the server name.
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.data.sqlclient.sqlconnection.clearallpools.aspx
The solution is to turn connection pooling off Pooling="false"
Whilst this has minimal impact on small applications, I haven't tested it with applications that receive hundreds of requests per minute (or more) and not sure what the implications are. Anyone care to comment?
Try this connectionString:
connectionString="Data Source=[MSSQLPrincipalServerIP,MSSQLPORT];Failover Partner=[MSSQLMirrorServerIP,MSSQLPORT];Initial Catalog=DatabaseName;Persist Security Info=True;User Id=userName; Password=userPassword.; Connection Timeout=15;"
If you are using .net development, you can try to use ObjAdoDBLib or PigSQLSrvLib and PigSQLSrvCoreLib, and the code will become simple.
Example code:
New object
ObjAdoDBLib
Me.ConnSQLSrv = New ConnSQLSrv(Me.DBSrv, Me.MirrDBSrv, Me.CurrDB, Me.DBUser, Me.DBPwd, Me.ProviderSQLSrv)
PigSQLSrvLib or PigSQLSrvCoreLib
Me.ConnSQLSrv = New ConnSQLSrv(Me.DBSrv, Me.MirrDBSrv, Me.CurrDB, Me.DBUser, Me.DBPwd)
Execute this method to automatically connect to the online database after the mirror database fails over.
Me.ConnSQLSrv.OpenOrKeepActive
For more information, see the relevant links.
https://www.nuget.org/packages/ObjAdoDBLib/
https://www.nuget.org/packages/PigSQLSrvLib/
https://www.nuget.org/packages/PigSQLSrvCoreLib/
Can I use OPENDATASOURCE (or another mechanism) from a Stored Procedure to connect to the same database as a different user? If so, how?
The database is meant to be deployed to several customers, and replicated by them as many times as they want to, etc. For this reason, I CANNOT HARDCODE the database server's name or the database's name.
(I tried using OPENDATASOURCE, but it only accepts hardcoded connection strings.)
Might EXECUTE AS work in your situation? http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms181362.aspx
You can set up a Linked Server to connect to the remote server using the login's current security context (or other options as it applies to your situation).
From your stored procedure, you could access it with something like SELECT * FROM mylinkedservername.mylinkedserverdatabase.dbo.mytable
But you say you want to connect to the same database but using a different login? You're looking for impersonation. Perhaps you can do this making a Linked Server that references itself, I haven't tried it. Search Microsoft Help documentation for how to set it up normally and test if it does what you're looking to do.
We have a classic ASP application that simply works and we have been loathe to modify the code lest we invoke the wrath of some long-dead Greek gods.
We recently had the requirement to add a feature to an application. The feature implementation is really just a database operation requires minimal change to the UI.
I changed the UI and made the minor modification to submit a new data value to the sproc call (sproc1).
In sproc1 that is called directly from ASP, we added a new call to another sproc that happens to be located on another server, sproc2.
Somehow, this does not work via our ASP app, but works in SQL Management Studio.
Here's the technical details:
SQL 2005 on both database servers.
Sql Login is authenticating from the ASP application to SQL 2005 Server 1.
Linked server from Server 1 to Server 2 is working.
When executing sproc1 from SQL Management Studio - works fine. Even when credentialed as the same user our code uses (the application sql login).
sproc2 works when called independently of sproc1 from SQL Management Studio.
VBScript (ASP) captures an error which is emitted in the XML back to the client. Error number is 0, error description is blank. Both from the ADODB.Connection object and from whatever Err.Number/Err.Description yields in VBScript from the ASP side.
So without any errors, nor any reproducibility (i.e. through SQL Mgmt Studio) - does anyone know the issue?
Our current plan is to break down and dig into the code on the ASP side and make a completely separate call to Server 2.sproc2 directly from ASP rather than trying to piggy-back through sproc1.
Have you got set nocount on set in both stored procedures? I had a similar issue once and whilst I can't remember exactly how I solved it at the moment, I know that had something to do with it!
You could be suffering from the double-hop problem
The double-hop issue is when the ASP/X page tries to use resources that are located on a server that is different from the IIS server.
Windows NT Challenge/Response does not support double-hop impersonations (in that once passed to the IIS server, the same credentials cannot be passed to a back-end server for authentication).
You should verify the attempted second connection using SQL Profiler.
Note that with your manual testing you are not authenticating via IIS. It's only when you initiate the sql via the ASP/X page that this problem manifests.
More resources:
http://support.microsoft.com/kb/910449
http://support.microsoft.com/kb/891031
http://support.microsoft.com/kb/810572
I had a similar problem and I solved it by setting nocount on and removing print commands.
My first reaction is that this might not be an issue of calling cross-server, but one of calling a second proc from a first, and that this might be what's acting differently in the two different environments.
My first question is this: what happens if you remove the cross-server aspect from the equation? If you could set up a test system where your first proc calls your second proc, but the second proc is on the same server and/or in the same database, do you still get the same problem?
Along these same lines: In my experience, when the application and SSMS have gotten different results like that, it has often been an issue of the stored procedures' settings. It could be, as Luke says, NOCOUNT. I've had this sort of thing happen from extraneous PRINT statements in the code, although I seem to remember the PRINTed value becoming part of the error description (very counterintuitively).
If anything is returned in the Messages window when you run this in SSMS, find out where it is coming from and make it stop. I would have to look up the technical terms, but my recollection is that different querying environments have different sensitivities to "errors", and that a default connection via SSSM will not throw an error at certain times when an ADO connection from a scripting language will.
One final thought: in case it is an environment thing, try different settings on your ASP page's connection string. E.g., if you have an OLEDB connection, try ODBC. Try the native and non-native SQL Server drivers. Check out what connection string options your provider supports, and try any of them that seem like they might be worth trying.
Example code might help :) Are you trying to return two tables from the stored procedure; I don't think ADO 2.6 can handle multiple tables being returned.
I did consider that (double-hop), but what is the difference between a sproc-in-a-sproc call like I am referring to vs. a typical cross-server join via INNER JOIN? Both would be executed on Server1, using the Linked Server credentials, and authenticating to Server 2.
Can anyone confirm that calling a sproc cross-server is different than doing a join on data tables? And why?
If the Linked Server config is a sql account - is that considered a double-hop (since what you refer to is NTLM double-hops?)
In terms of whether multiple resultsets are coming back - no. Both Server1.Sproc1 and Server2.Sproc2 would be "ExecuteNonQuery()" in the .net world and return nothing (no resultsets and no return values).
Try to check the permissions to the database for the user specified in the connection string.
Use the same user name in the connection string to log in to the database while using sql mgmt studio.
create some temporary table to write the intermediate values and exceptions since it can be a effective way of debugging your application.
Can I just check: You made the addition of sproc2? Prior to that it was working fine for ages.
Could you not change where you call sproc2 from? Rather than calling it from inside sproc1, can you call it from the ASP? That way you control the authentication to SQL in the code, and don't have to rely on setting up any trusts or shared remote authentication on the servers.
How is your linked server set up? You generally have some options as to how it authenticates to the remote server, which include logging in as the currently logged in user or specifying a SQL login to always use. Have you tried setting it to always use a specific account? That should eliminate any possible permissions issues in calling the remote procedure...