I've inherited a fairly substantial project, which makes extensive use of SQL Server (2005 and 2008) views.
One step in the build process is the call the sp_refreshviews system stored procedure, to make sure, no changes on any tables have broken our views. This works fine .... except for about three or four (out of 200+) views....
With those, it just bombs out - gives odd error messages like
Msg 15165, Level 16, State 1,
Procedure
sp_refreshsqlmodule_internal, Line 55
Could not find object
'vYourViewNameHere' or you do not
have permission.
which is dead wrong - that view does exist, and I definitely can select from it.
I cannot seem to find any good concise information about why this happens, what triggers it... any ideas? Is there anything I could do to detect such problematic views? Can I change their definitino so that they'd be refreshable again?
Update: I logged a bug report on Microsoft Connect for this - if you agree this seems odd and needs to be fixed, please vote for it!
https://connect.microsoft.com/SQLServer/feedback/details/676728/sp-refreshview-crashes-with-misleading-error-on-views-with-schemabinding
I noticed in the comments you mention it has SCHEMABINDING. I can almost guarantee that is the issue. Books online specifically says this is for use on non-schema bound views.
A scheme-bound view wouldn't allow a breaking change to occur so updating the meta-data is un-necessary. You can safely skip it.
You can identify all the schemabound views like this:
SELECT * FROM sys.views WHERE OBJECTPROPERTY(object_id, 'IsSchemaBound')=1
I ran into the same error when using sp_helptext. In my case the cause was using sp_rename to rename the view. The following code reproduces this error.
create view demo as select dummy = 1
go
exec sp_rename 'demo', 'new_demo'
go
exec sp_refreshview 'new_demo'
go
The only solution is to manually alter the view. Apply this fix to the above solution and you get:
create view demo as select dummy = 1
go
exec sp_rename 'demo', 'new_demo'
go
-- This statement fixes the problem
alter view new_demo as select dummy = 1
go
exec sp_refreshview 'new_demo'
go
My incarnation of this error was:
Msg 8116, Level 16, State 1, Procedure sp_refreshsqlmodule_internal,
Line 75 Argument data type int is invalid for argument 1 of substring
function.
This error message was being reported at various places in the db script. I would say wrong places. If I commented out the SQL this error was reported at, the same error would be reported elsewhere.
I commented out the following call in my script as a workaround, and the script would complete successfully.
-- EXECUTE sp_refreshview #viewName;
Note: My database didn't report having an schemabound views when running the query suggested in RThomas' adjacent answer https://stackoverflow.com/a/6460532/179972
UPDATE - SOLUTION:
After our database script ran successfully with the sp_refreshview command commented out (shown above), we then ran the view refresh code on its own, and it was successful too.
--
This answer doesn't make sense to me as to how it was able to work successfully, however I've documenting it here in case it proves helpful to somebody else.
To find which view is your problem add a print to the normal sppRefreshViews. Nothing earth shattering here, but i thought I would share.
CREATE procedure sppRefreshViews2
as
declare #t varchar (1024)
declare tbl_cur cursor for
select TABLE_NAME from INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES WHERE TABLE_TYPE = 'VIEW' and table_name like 'sp%'
OPEN tbl_cur
FETCH NEXT from tbl_cur INTO #t
WHILE ##FETCH_STATUS = 0
BEGIN
print #t
exec ('sp_refreshview ''' + #t + '''')
FETCH NEXT from tbl_cur INTO #t
END
CLOSE tbl_cur
DEALLOCATE tbl_Cur
Related
One of our tables is loosing a column and related views need to be refreshed. I ran the procedure sp_refreshview ok on it's own for one view, although I had to pick the actual database, even though I had the DB.dbo.View_name extension.
I am now wanting to run a few of these update view statements in one script that does the table update too, but keep getting this error message saying incorrect syntax near sp_refreshview. I have tried putting go after the statement to contain it, with the USE [DB_Name] statement before each update. Like below:
use [DB1]
sp_refreshview 'DB1.dbo.View1'
go
use [DB2]
sp_refreshview 'DB2.dbo.View1'
go
It keep failing for some reason. Granted this is the first time I have set a batch script to update multiple views in different DBs so if there is a better way to do this I am open to suggestions.
To fix your syntax error, I believe all you are missing is an "EXEC" before your sp_refreshview's:
USE [DB1]
EXEC sp_refreshview 'DB1.dbo.View1'
GO
USE [DB2]
EXEC sp_refreshview 'DB2.dbo.View1'
GO
I have three stored procedures Sp1, Sp2 and Sp3.
The first one (Sp1) will execute the second one (Sp2) and save returned data into #tempTB1 and the second one will execute the third one (Sp3) and save data into #tempTB2.
If I execute the Sp2 it will work and it will return me all my data from the Sp3, but the problem is in the Sp1, when I execute it it will display this error:
INSERT EXEC statement cannot be nested
I tried to change the place of execute Sp2 and it display me another error:
Cannot use the ROLLBACK statement
within an INSERT-EXEC statement.
This is a common issue when attempting to 'bubble' up data from a chain of stored procedures. A restriction in SQL Server is you can only have one INSERT-EXEC active at a time. I recommend looking at How to Share Data Between Stored Procedures which is a very thorough article on patterns to work around this type of problem.
For example a work around could be to turn Sp3 into a Table-valued function.
This is the only "simple" way to do this in SQL Server without some giant convoluted created function or executed sql string call, both of which are terrible solutions:
create a temp table
openrowset your stored procedure data into it
EXAMPLE:
INSERT INTO #YOUR_TEMP_TABLE
SELECT * FROM OPENROWSET ('SQLOLEDB','Server=(local);TRUSTED_CONNECTION=YES;','set fmtonly off EXEC [ServerName].dbo.[StoredProcedureName] 1,2,3')
Note: You MUST use 'set fmtonly off', AND you CANNOT add dynamic sql to this either inside the openrowset call, either for the string containing your stored procedure parameters or for the table name. Thats why you have to use a temp table rather than table variables, which would have been better, as it out performs temp table in most cases.
OK, encouraged by jimhark here is an example of the old single hash table approach: -
CREATE PROCEDURE SP3 as
BEGIN
SELECT 1, 'Data1'
UNION ALL
SELECT 2, 'Data2'
END
go
CREATE PROCEDURE SP2 as
BEGIN
if exists (select * from tempdb.dbo.sysobjects o where o.xtype in ('U') and o.id = object_id(N'tempdb..#tmp1'))
INSERT INTO #tmp1
EXEC SP3
else
EXEC SP3
END
go
CREATE PROCEDURE SP1 as
BEGIN
EXEC SP2
END
GO
/*
--I want some data back from SP3
-- Just run the SP1
EXEC SP1
*/
/*
--I want some data back from SP3 into a table to do something useful
--Try run this - get an error - can't nest Execs
if exists (select * from tempdb.dbo.sysobjects o where o.xtype in ('U') and o.id = object_id(N'tempdb..#tmp1'))
DROP TABLE #tmp1
CREATE TABLE #tmp1 (ID INT, Data VARCHAR(20))
INSERT INTO #tmp1
EXEC SP1
*/
/*
--I want some data back from SP3 into a table to do something useful
--However, if we run this single hash temp table it is in scope anyway so
--no need for the exec insert
if exists (select * from tempdb.dbo.sysobjects o where o.xtype in ('U') and o.id = object_id(N'tempdb..#tmp1'))
DROP TABLE #tmp1
CREATE TABLE #tmp1 (ID INT, Data VARCHAR(20))
EXEC SP1
SELECT * FROM #tmp1
*/
My work around for this problem has always been to use the principle that single hash temp tables are in scope to any called procs. So, I have an option switch in the proc parameters (default set to off). If this is switched on, the called proc will insert the results into the temp table created in the calling proc. I think in the past I have taken it a step further and put some code in the called proc to check if the single hash table exists in scope, if it does then insert the code, otherwise return the result set. Seems to work well - best way of passing large data sets between procs.
This trick works for me.
You don't have this problem on remote server, because on remote server, the last insert command waits for the result of previous command to execute. It's not the case on same server.
Profit that situation for a workaround.
If you have the right permission to create a Linked Server, do it.
Create the same server as linked server.
in SSMS, log into your server
go to "Server Object
Right Click on "Linked Servers", then "New Linked Server"
on the dialog, give any name of your linked server : eg: THISSERVER
server type is "Other data source"
Provider : Microsoft OLE DB Provider for SQL server
Data source: your IP, it can be also just a dot (.), because it's localhost
Go to the tab "Security" and choose the 3rd one "Be made using the login's current security context"
You can edit the server options (3rd tab) if you want
Press OK, your linked server is created
now your Sql command in the SP1 is
insert into #myTempTable
exec THISSERVER.MY_DATABASE_NAME.MY_SCHEMA.SP2
Believe me, it works even you have dynamic insert in SP2
I found a work around is to convert one of the prods into a table valued function. I realize that is not always possible, and introduces its own limitations. However, I have been able to always find at least one of the procedures a good candidate for this. I like this solution, because it doesn't introduce any "hacks" to the solution.
I encountered this issue when trying to import the results of a Stored Proc into a temp table, and that Stored Proc inserted into a temp table as part of its own operation. The issue being that SQL Server does not allow the same process to write to two different temp tables at the same time.
The accepted OPENROWSET answer works fine, but I needed to avoid using any Dynamic SQL or an external OLE provider in my process, so I went a different route.
One easy workaround I found was to change the temporary table in my stored procedure to a table variable. It works exactly the same as it did with a temp table, but no longer conflicts with my other temp table insert.
Just to head off the comment I know that a few of you are about to write, warning me off Table Variables as performance killers... All I can say to you is that in 2020 it pays dividends not to be afraid of Table Variables. If this was 2008 and my Database was hosted on a server with 16GB RAM and running off 5400RPM HDDs, I might agree with you. But it's 2020 and I have an SSD array as my primary storage and hundreds of gigs of RAM. I could load my entire company's database to a table variable and still have plenty of RAM to spare.
Table Variables are back on the menu!
I recommend to read this entire article. Below is the most relevant section of that article that addresses your question:
Rollback and Error Handling is Difficult
In my articles on Error and Transaction Handling in SQL Server, I suggest that you should always have an error handler like
BEGIN CATCH
IF ##trancount > 0 ROLLBACK TRANSACTION
EXEC error_handler_sp
RETURN 55555
END CATCH
The idea is that even if you do not start a transaction in the procedure, you should always include a ROLLBACK, because if you were not able to fulfil your contract, the transaction is not valid.
Unfortunately, this does not work well with INSERT-EXEC. If the called procedure executes a ROLLBACK statement, this happens:
Msg 3915, Level 16, State 0, Procedure SalesByStore, Line 9 Cannot use the ROLLBACK statement within an INSERT-EXEC statement.
The execution of the stored procedure is aborted. If there is no CATCH handler anywhere, the entire batch is aborted, and the transaction is rolled back. If the INSERT-EXEC is inside TRY-CATCH, that CATCH handler will fire, but the transaction is doomed, that is, you must roll it back. The net effect is that the rollback is achieved as requested, but the original error message that triggered the rollback is lost. That may seem like a small thing, but it makes troubleshooting much more difficult, because when you see this error, all you know is that something went wrong, but you don't know what.
I had the same issue and concern over duplicate code in two or more sprocs. I ended up adding an additional attribute for "mode". This allowed common code to exist inside one sproc and the mode directed flow and result set of the sproc.
what about just store the output to the static table ? Like
-- SubProcedure: subProcedureName
---------------------------------
-- Save the value
DELETE lastValue_subProcedureName
INSERT INTO lastValue_subProcedureName (Value)
SELECT #Value
-- Return the value
SELECT #Value
-- Procedure
--------------------------------------------
-- get last value of subProcedureName
SELECT Value FROM lastValue_subProcedureName
its not ideal, but its so simple and you don't need to rewrite everything.
UPDATE:
the previous solution does not work well with parallel queries (async and multiuser accessing) therefore now Iam using temp tables
-- A local temporary table created in a stored procedure is dropped automatically when the stored procedure is finished.
-- The table can be referenced by any nested stored procedures executed by the stored procedure that created the table.
-- The table cannot be referenced by the process that called the stored procedure that created the table.
IF OBJECT_ID('tempdb..#lastValue_spGetData') IS NULL
CREATE TABLE #lastValue_spGetData (Value INT)
-- trigger stored procedure with special silent parameter
EXEC dbo.spGetData 1 --silent mode parameter
nested spGetData stored procedure content
-- Save the output if temporary table exists.
IF OBJECT_ID('tempdb..#lastValue_spGetData') IS NOT NULL
BEGIN
DELETE #lastValue_spGetData
INSERT INTO #lastValue_spGetData(Value)
SELECT Col1 FROM dbo.Table1
END
-- stored procedure return
IF #silentMode = 0
SELECT Col1 FROM dbo.Table1
Declare an output cursor variable to the inner sp :
#c CURSOR VARYING OUTPUT
Then declare a cursor c to the select you want to return.
Then open the cursor.
Then set the reference:
DECLARE c CURSOR LOCAL FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR
SELECT ...
OPEN c
SET #c = c
DO NOT close or reallocate.
Now call the inner sp from the outer one supplying a cursor parameter like:
exec sp_abc a,b,c,, #cOUT OUTPUT
Once the inner sp executes, your #cOUT is ready to fetch. Loop and then close and deallocate.
If you are able to use other associated technologies such as C#, I suggest using the built in SQL command with Transaction parameter.
var sqlCommand = new SqlCommand(commandText, null, transaction);
I've created a simple Console App that demonstrates this ability which can be found here:
https://github.com/hecked12/SQL-Transaction-Using-C-Sharp
In short, C# allows you to overcome this limitation where you can inspect the output of each stored procedure and use that output however you like, for example you can feed it to another stored procedure. If the output is ok, you can commit the transaction, otherwise, you can revert the changes using rollback.
On SQL Server 2008 R2, I had a mismatch in table columns that caused the Rollback error. It went away when I fixed my sqlcmd table variable populated by the insert-exec statement to match that returned by the stored proc. It was missing org_code. In a windows cmd file, it loads result of stored procedure and selects it.
set SQLTXT= declare #resets as table (org_id nvarchar(9), org_code char(4), ^
tin(char9), old_strt_dt char(10), strt_dt char(10)); ^
insert #resets exec rsp_reset; ^
select * from #resets;
sqlcmd -U user -P pass -d database -S server -Q "%SQLTXT%" -o "OrgReport.txt"
I have a stored procedure for SQL Server 2000 that can only have a single instance being executed at any given moment. Is there any way to check and ensure that the procedure is not currently in execution?
Ideally, I'd like the code to be self contained and efficient (fast). I also don't want to do something like creating a global temp table checking for it's existence because if the procedure fails for some reason, it will always be considered as running...
I've searched, I don't think this has been asked yet. If it has been, sorry.
yes there is a way. use what is known as SQL Server Application locks.
EDIT: yes this also works in SQL Server 2000.
You can use sp_getapplock sp_releaseapplock as in the example found at Lock a Stored Procedure for Single Use Only.
But, is that what you are really trying to do? Are you trying to get a transaction with a high isolation level? You would also likely be much better off handling that type of concurrency at the application level as in general higher level languages have much better primitives for that sort of thing.
how about locking a dummy table? That wouldn't cause deadlocks in case of failures.
One of the initial external links shared in the replies had helpful info but personally I prefer for standalone answers/snippets to be right here on the Stack Overflow question page. See below snippet for what I used and solved my (similar) problem. If anyone has problems (or adjustment suggestions) please chime in.
IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.objects WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[MyLockedAndDelayedStoredProcedure]') AND type in (N'P', N'PC'))
DROP PROCEDURE [GetSessionParticipantAnswersFromEmailAddressAndSessionName]
GO
CREATE PROCEDURE [MyLockedAndDelayedStoredProcedure]
#param1 nvarchar(max) = ''
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE #LockedTransactionReturnCode INT
PRINT 'MyLockedAndDelayedStoredProcedure CALLED at ' + CONVERT(VARCHAR(12),GETDATE(),114);
BEGIN TRANSACTION
EXEC #LockedTransactionReturnCode =sp_getapplock #Resource='MyLockedAndDelayedStoredProcedure_LOCK', #LockMode='Exclusive', #LockOwner='Transaction', #LockTimeout = 10000
PRINT 'MyLockedAndDelayedStoredProcedure STARTED at ' + CONVERT(VARCHAR(12),GETDATE(),114);
-- Do your Stored Procedure Stuff here
Select #param1;
-- If you don't want/need a delay remove this line
WAITFOR DELAY '00:00:3'; -- 3 second delay
PRINT 'MyLockedAndDelayedStoredProcedure ENDED at ' + CONVERT(VARCHAR(12),GETDATE(),114);
COMMIT
END
-- https://gist.github.com/cemerson/366358cafc60bc1676f8345fe3626a3f
At the start of the procedure check if piece of data is 'locked' if not lock it
At end of procedure unlock the piece of data.
ie
SELECT #IsLocked=IsLocked FROM CheckLockedTable Where spName = 'this_storedProcedure'
IF #IsLocked = 1
RETURN
ELSE
UPDATE CheckLockedTable SET IsLocked = 1 Where spName = 'this_storedProcedure'
.
.
.
-- At end of Stored Procedure
UPDATE CheckLockedTable SET IsLocked = 0 Where spName = 'this_storedProcedure'
further to these two questions, is there a way to disable the messages that may get sent along with the resultset in SQL2008?
(please note this is nothing to do with the ANSI_WARNINGS setting. Or NOCOUNT.)
Thanks for any help.
Edit: It's not a problem with compatibility settings or table owners. And it's nothing to do with NOCOUNT. Trust me.
No, there's not a way to disable all messages that get sent along with the result sets. Set nocount on/off doesn't have an effect on these types of messages.
You need the NOCOUNT in the body of the Sproc anyway (I appreciate that you've tested it with and without)
In circumstances like this I get the actual call to the Sproc (either from a Debug in my APP, or using SQL Profiler) and then plug that into SSMS or whatever IDE you use, wrapping it in a ROLLBACK transaction (so it can't accidentally make any changes). Note: Log on to SQL Server, with your IDE, using the same credentials as the App will use.
BEGIN TRANSACTION
EXEC StaffEnquirySurnameSearch #searchterm = 'FOOBAR'
ROLLBACK
and see what you get. Use TEXT mode for output, rather than GRID mode which might hide something
Just to show how I think NOCOUNT shoud be added to your SProc:
CREATE PROCEDURE StaffEnquirySurnameSearch
#searchterm varchar(255)
AS
SET NOCOUNT ON
SELECT AD.Name, AD.Company, AD.telephoneNumber, AD.manager, CVS.Position,
CVS.CompanyArea, CVS.Location, CVS.Title, AD.guid AS guid,
AD.firstname, AD.surname
FROM ADCVS AD
LEFT OUTER JOIN CVS ON
AD.Guid=CVS.Guid
WHERE AD.SurName LIKE #searchterm
ORDER BY AD.Surname, AD.Firstname
GO
I note that you are not prefixing the tables with a database owner (most commonly "dbo") which might mean that there are additional copies owned by whomever and that they turn out to be the default from the applications permissions perspective, although I don't think that will change the resultsets [between SQL versions], However, same thing applies to ownership of the Sproc, and there you might be calling some earlier version, created for a different owner.
Ditto where your Sproc name is defined in your ASP.NET code (which I can't seem to find in your linked question) should also have the owner defined, i.e.
EXEC dbo.StaffEnquirySurnameSearch #searchterm = 'FOOBAR'
Did you change the compatibility level when you upgraded from SQL 2000 to 2008? If it is some sort of backward compatibility warning message that might cure it.
Have you tried running the same CONTAINS query without the "OR"?
i.e.:
SELECT * FROM my_table
WHERE CONTAINS(my_column, 'a monkey') -- "a" is a noise word
instead of
SELECT * FROM my_table
WHERE CONTAINS(my_column, 'a OR monkey') -- "a" is a noise word
You can wrap it in a try catch... more info in books online
For example:
CREATE TABLE Test_ShortString(
ShortString varchar(10) NULL
)
begin Try
insert into
Test_ShortString (ShortString)
values ('123456789012345')
End Try
Begin catch
--Select Error_Number() as ErrorNumber
end catch
As part of my integration strategy, I have a few SQL scripts that run in order to update the database. The first thing all of these scripts do is check to see if they need to run, e.g.:
if #version <> #expects
begin
declare #error varchar(100);
set #error = 'Invalid version. Your version is ' + convert(varchar, #version) + '. This script expects version ' + convert(varchar, #expects) + '.';
raiserror(#error, 10, 1);
end
else
begin
...sql statements here...
end
Works great! Except if I need to add a stored procedure. The "create proc" command must be the only command in a batch of sql commands. Putting a "create proc" in my IF statement causes this error:
'CREATE/ALTER PROCEDURE' must be the first statement in a query batch.
Ouch! How do I put the CREATE PROC command in my script, and have it only execute if it needs to?
Here's what I came up with:
Wrap it in an EXEC(), like so:
if #version <> #expects
begin
...snip...
end
else
begin
exec('CREATE PROC MyProc AS SELECT ''Victory!''');
end
Works like a charm!
SET NOEXEC ON is good way to switch off some part of code
IF NOT EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.assemblies WHERE name = 'SQL_CLR_Functions')
SET NOEXEC ON
GO
CREATE FUNCTION dbo.CLR_CharList_Split(#list nvarchar(MAX), #delim nchar(1) = N',')
RETURNS TABLE (str nvarchar(4000)) AS EXTERNAL NAME SQL_CLR_Functions.[Granite.SQL.CLR.Functions].CLR_CharList_Split
GO
SET NOEXEC OFF
Found here:
https://codereview.stackexchange.com/questions/10490/conditional-create-must-be-the-only-statement-in-the-batch
P.S. Another way is SET PARSEONLY { ON | OFF }.
But watch out for single quotes within your Stored Procedure - they need to be "escaped" by adding a second one. The first answer has done this, but just in case you missed it. A trap for young players.
Versioning your database is the way to go, but... Why conditionally create stored procedures. For Views, stored procedures, functions, just conditionally drop them and re-create them every time. If you conditionally create, then you will not clean-up databases that have a problem or a hack that got put in 2 years ago by another developer (you or I would never do this) who was sure he would remember to remove the one time emergency update.
Problem with dropping and creating is you lose any security grants that had previously been applied to the object being dropped.
This is an old thread, but Jobo is incorrect: Create Procedure must be the first statement in a batch. Therefore, you can't use Exists to test for existence and then use either Create or Alter. Pity.
It is much better to alter an existing stored proc because of the potential for properties and permissions that have been added AND which will be lost if the stored proc is dropped.
So, test to see if it NOT EXISTS, if it does not then create a dummy proc. Then after that use an alter statement.
IF NOT EXISTS(SELECT * FROM sysobjects WHERE Name = 'YOUR_STORED_PROC_NAME' AND xtype='P')
EXECUTE('CREATE PROC [dbo].[YOUR_STORED_PROC_NAME] as BEGIN select 0 END')
GO
ALTER PROC [dbo].[YOUR_STORED_PROC_NAME]
....
I must admit, I would normally agree with #Peter - I conditionally drop and then unconditionally recreate every time. I've been caught out too many times in the past when trying to second-guess the schema differences between databases, with or without any form of version control.
Having said that, your own suggestion #Josh is pretty cool. Certainly interesting. :-)
My solution is to check if the proc exists, if so then drop it, and then create the proc (same answer as #robsoft but with an example...)
IF EXISTS(SELECT * FROM sysobjects WHERE Name = 'PROC_NAME' AND xtype='P')
BEGIN
DROP PROCEDURE PROC_NAME
END
GO
CREATE PROCEDURE PROC_NAME
#value int
AS
BEGIN
UPDATE SomeTable
SET SomeColumn = 1
WHERE Value = #value
END
GO
use the 'Exists' command in T-SQL to see if the stored proc exists. If it does, use 'Alter', else use 'Create'
IF NOT EXISTS(SELECT * FROM sys.procedures WHERE name = 'pr_MyStoredProc')
BEGIN
CREATE PROCEDURE pr_MyStoredProc AS .....
SET NOCOUNT ON
END
ALTER PROC pr_MyStoredProc
AS
SELECT * FROM tb_MyTable