SQL server trigger question - sql-server

I am by no means a sql programmer and I am trying to accomplish something that I am pretty sure has been done a million times before.
I am trying to auto generate a customer number in sql every time a new customer is inserted, but the trigger (or sp?) will only work if at least the first name, last name and another value called case number is entered. If any of these fields are missing, the system generates an error. If the criteria is met, the system generates and assigns a unique id to that customer that begins with letters GL- and then uses 5 digit number so a customer John Doe would be GL-00001 and Jane Doe would be GL-00002.
I am sorry if I am asking too much but I am basically a select insert update guy and nothing more so thanks in advance for any help.

If I were in this situation, I would:
--Alter the table(s) so that first name, last name and case number are required (NOT NULL) columns. Handle your checks for required fields on the application side before submitting the record to the database.
--If it doesn't already exist, add an identity column to the customer table.
--Add a persisted computed column to the customer table that will format the identity column into the desired GL-00000 format.
/* Demo computed column for customer number */
create table #test (
id int identity,
customer_number as 'GL-' + left('00000', 5-len(cast(id as varchar(5)))) + cast(id as varchar(5)) persisted,
name char(20)
)
insert into #test (name) values ('Joe')
insert into #test (name) values ('BobbyS')
select * from #test
drop table #test
This should satisfy your requirements without the need to introduce the overhead of a trigger.

So what do you want to do? generate a customer number even when these fields arn't populated?
Have you looked at the SQL for the trigger? You can do this in SSMS (SQL Server Managment Studio) by going to the table in question in the Object Explorer, expanding the table and then expanding triggers.
If you open up the trigger you'll see what it does to generate the customer number. If you are unsure on how this code works, then post the code for the trigger up.
If you are making changes to an existing system i'd advise you to find out any implications that changing the way data is inputted works.
For example, others parts of the application may depend on all of the initial values being populated, so after changing the trigger to allow incomplete data to be added, you may inturn break something else.

You have probably a unique constraint and/or NOT NULL constraints set on the table.
Remove/Disable these (for example with the SQL-Server Management Console in Design Mode) and then try again to insert the data. Keep in mind, that you will probably not be able to enable the constraints after your insert, since you are violating conditions after the insert. Only disable or reomve the constraints, if you are absolutely sure that they are unecessary.
Here's example syntax (you need to know the constraint names):
--disable
ALTER TABLE customer NOCHECK CONSTRAINT your_constraint_name
--enable
ALTER TABLE customer CHECK CONSTRAINT your_constraint_name
Caution: If I were you, I'd rather try to insert dummy values for the not null columns like this:
insert into customers select afield , 1 as dummyvalue, 2 as dummyvalue from your datasource

A very easy way to do this would be to create a table of this sort of structure:
CustomerID of type in that is a primary key and set it as identity
CustomerIDPrfix of type varchar(3) which stores GL- as a default value.
Then add your other fields and set them to NOT NULL.
If that way is not acceptable and you do need to write a trigger check out these two articles:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa258254(SQL.80).aspx
http://www.kodyaz.com/articles/sql-trigger-example-in-sql-server-2008.aspx
Basiclly it is all about getting the logic right to check if the fields are blank. Experiment with a test database on your local machine. This will help you get it right.

Related

Stored procedure to generate a unique id column

Good day
I have a situation where two users are saving data to the same database and there are primary key conflicts.
Is it possible to write a stored procedure or trigger which will generate a unique identity by adding two columns.
For instance: I have table2 related to table1 by Table1ID. Increment and seed is 1 for both.
If I had to add a row to table2 I would like the autogenerated ID number to be added to a text column thereby making it unique. So the ID would be something like JoeSoap5.
If you want to generated something unique you can use the build-in function "NEWID()". Type and executed the following code:
SELECT NEWID()
If you need to insert record in second table when record in your first table is inserted, is is possible to implement this using TRIGGERS. In your case you can use "AFTER INSERT TRIGGER" or "BEFORE INSERT TRIGGER" - generally this will be a piece of code that will be executed AFTER/BEFORE row in your first table is inserted.
You don't specify your SQL Server version.
SQL 2012 introduces the concept of a sequence - http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff878091.aspx - which would allow you to do just what you want.

Creating a SQL Server trigger to transition from a natural key to a surrogate key

Backstory
At work where we're planning on deprecating a Natural Key column in one of our primary tables. The project consists of 100+ applications that link to this table/column; 400+ stored procedures that reference this column directly; and a vast array of common tables between these applications that also reference this column.
The Big Bang and Start from Scratch methods are out of the picture. We're going to deprecate this column one application at a time, certify the changes, and move on to the next... and we've got a lengthy target goal to make this effort practical.
The problem I have is that a lot of these applications have shared stored procedures and tables. If I completely convert all of Application A's tables/stored procedures Application B and C will be broken until converted. These in turn may break applications D, E, F...Etc. I've already got a strategy implemented for Code classes and Stored Procedures, the part I'm stuck on is the transitioning state of the database.
Here's a basic example of what we have:
Users
---------------------------
Code varchar(32) natural key
Access
---------------------------
UserCode varchar(32) foreign key
AccessLevel int
And we're aiming now just for transitional state like this:
Users
---------------------------
Code varchar(32)
Id int surrogate key
Access
---------------------------
UserCode varchar(32)
UserID int foreign key
AccessLevel int
The idea being during the transitional phase un-migrated applications and stored procedures will still be able to access all the appropriate data and new ones can start pushing to the correct columns -- Once the migration is complete for all stored procedures and applications we can finally drop the extra columns.
I wanted to use SQL Server's triggers to automatically intercept any new Insert/Update's and do something like the following on each of the affected tables:
CREATE TRIGGER tr_Access_Sync
ON Access
INSTEAD OF INSERT(, UPDATE)
AS
BEGIN
DIM #code as Varchar(32)
DIM #id as int
SET #code = (SELECT inserted.code FROM inserted)
SET #id = (SELECT inserted.code FROM inserted)
-- This is a migrated application; find the appropriate legacy key
IF #code IS NULL AND #id IS NOT NULL
SELECT Code FROM Users WHERE Users.id = #id
-- This is a legacy application; find the appropriate surrogate key
IF #id IS NULL AND #code IS NOT NULL
SELECT Code FROM Users WHERE Users.id = #id
-- Impossible code:
UPDATE inserted SET inserted.code=#code, inserted.id=#id
END
Question
The 2 huge problems I'm having so far are:
I can't do an "AFTER INSERT" because NULL constraints will make the insert fail.
The "impossible code" I mentioned is how I'd like to cleanly proxy the original query; If the original query has x, y, z columns in it or just x, I ideally would like the same trigger to do these. And if I add/delete another column, I'd like the trigger to remain functional.
Anyone have a code example where this could be possible, or even an alternate solution for keeping these columns properly filled even when only one of values is passed to SQL?
Tricky business...
OK, first of all: this trigger will NOT work in many circumstances:
SET #code = (SELECT inserted.code FROM inserted)
SET #id = (SELECT inserted.code FROM inserted)
The trigger can be called with a set of rows in the Inserted pseudo-table - which one are you going to pick here?? You need to write your trigger in such a fashion that it will work even when you get 10 rows in the Inserted table. If a SQL statement inserts 10 rows, your trigger will not be fired ten times - one for each row - but only once for the whole batch - you need to take that into account!
Second point: I would try to make the ID's IDENTITY fields - then they'll always get a value - even for "legacy" apps. Those "old" apps should provide a legacy key instead - so you should be fine there. The only issue I see and don't know how you handle those are inserts from an already converted app - do they provide an "old-style" legacy key as well? If not - how quickly do you need to have such a key?
What I'm thinking about would be a "cleanup job" that would run over the table and get all the rows with a NULL legacy key and then provide some meaningful value for it. Make this a regular stored procedure and execute it every e.g. day, four hours, 30 minutes - whatever suits your needs. Then you don't have to deal with triggers and all the limitations they have.
Wouldn't it be possible to make the schema changes 'bigbang' but create views over the top of those tables that 'hide' the change?
I think you might find you are simply putting off the breakages to a later point in time: "We're going to deprecate this column one application at a time" - it might be my naivety but I can't see how that's ever going to work.
Surely, a worse mess can occur when different applications are doing things differently?
After sleeping on the problem, this seems to be the most generic/re-usable solution I could come up with within the SQL Syntax. It works fine even if both columns have a NOT NULL restraint, even if you don't reference the "other" column at all in your insert.
CREATE TRIGGER tr_Access_Sync
ON Access
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
/*-- Create a temporary table to modify because "inserted" is read-only */
/*-- "temp" is actually "#temp" but it throws off stackoverflow's syntax highlighting */
SELECT * INTO temp FROM inserted
/*-- If for whatever reason the secondary table has it's own identity column */
/*-- we need to get rid of it from our #temp table to do an Insert later with identities on */
ALTER TABLE temp DROP COLUMN oneToManyIdentity
UPDATE temp
SET
UserCode = ISNULL(UserCode, (SELECT UserCode FROM Users U WHERE U.UserID = temp.UserID)),
UserID = ISNULL(UserID, (SELECT UserID FROM Users U WHERE U.UserCode = temp.UserCode))
INSERT INTO Access SELECT * FROM temp
END

In Oracle, is it possible to "insert" a column into a table?

When adding a column to an existing table, Oracle always puts the column at the end of the table. Is it possible to tell Oracle where it should appear in the table? If so, how?
The location of the column in the table should be unimportant (unless there are "page sizes" to consider, or whatever Oracle uses to actually store the data). What is more important to the consumer is how the results are called, i.e. the Select statement.
rename YOUR_ORIGINAL_TABLE as YOUR_NEW_TABLE;
create table YOUR_ORIGINAL_TABLE nologging /* or unrecoverable */
as
select Column1, Column2, NEW_COLUMN, Column3
from YOUR_NEW_TABLE;
Drop table YOUR_NEW_TABLE;
Select * From YOUR_ORIGINAL_TABLE; <<<<< now you will see the new column in the middle of the table.
But why would you want to do it? It's seems illogical. You should never assume column ordering and just use named column list if column order is important.
Why does the order of the columns matter? You can always alter it in your select statement?
There's an advantage to adding new columns at the end of the table. If there's code that naively does a "SELECT *" and then parses the fields in order, you won't be breaking old code by adding new columns at the end. If you add new columns in the middle of the table, then old code may be broken.
At one job, I had a DBA who was super-anal about "Never do 'SELECT *'". He insisted that you always write out the specific fields.
What I normally do is:
Rename the old table.
Create the new table with columns in the right order.
Create the constraints for that new table.
Populate with data:Insert into new_table select * from renamed table.
I don't think that this can be done without saving the data to a temporary table, dropping the table, and recreating it. On the other hand, it really shouldn't matter where the column is. As long as you specify the columns you are retrieving in your select statement, you can order them however you want.
Bear in mind that, under the tables, all the data in the table records are glued together. Adding a column to the end of a table [if it is nullable or (in later versions) not null with a default] just means a change to the table's metadata.
Adding a column in the middle would require re-writing every record in that table to add the appropriate value (or markers) for that column. In some cases, that might mean the records take up more room on the blocks and some records need to be migrated.
In short, it's a VAST amount of IO effort for a table of any real size.
You can always create a view over the table that has the columns in the preferred order and use that view in a DML statement just as you would the table
I don't believe so - SQL Server doesn't allow these either. The method I always have to use is:
Create new table that looks right (including additional column
Begin transaction
select all data from old table into new one
Drop old table
Rename new table
Commit transaction.
Not exactly pretty, but gets the job done.
No, its not possible via an "ALTER TABLE" statement. However, you could create a new table with the same definition as your current one, albeit with a different name, with the columns in the correct order in the way you want them. Copy the data into the new table. Drop the old table. Rename the new table to match the old table name.
Tom Kyte has an article on this on AskTom
link text
Apparently there's a trick involving marking the "after" columns INVISIBLE; when restored, they end up at the back.
CREATE TABLE yourtable (one NUMBER(5, 0), two NUMBER(5, 0), three NUMBER(5, 0), four NUMBER(5, 0))
ALTER TABLE yourtable ADD twopointfive NUMBER(5, 0);
ALTER TABLE yourtable MODIFY (three INVISIBLE, four INVISIBLE);
ALTER TABLE yourtable MODIFY (three VISIBLE, four VISIBLE);
https://oracle-base.com/articles/12c/invisible-columns-12cr1#invisible-columns-and-column-ordering
1) Ok so you can't do it directly. We don't need post after post saying the same thing, do we?
2) Ok so the order of columns in a table doesn't technically matter. But that's not the point, the original question simply asked if you could or couldn't be done. Don't presume that you know everybody else's requirements. Maybe they have a table with 100 columns that is currently being queried using "SELECT * ..." inside some monstrously hacked together query that they would just prefer not to try to untangle, let alone replace "*" with 100 column names. Or maybe they are just anal about the order of things and like to have related fields next to each other when browsing schema with, say SQL Developer. Maybe they are dealing with non-technical staff that won't know to look at the end of a list of 100 columns when, logically, it should be somewhere near the beginning.
Nothing is more irritating than asking an honest question and getting an answer that says: "you shouldn't be doing that". It's MY job, not YOURS! Please don't tell me how to do my job. Just help if you can. Thanks!
Ok... sorry for the rant. Now...at www.orafaq.com it suggests this workaround.
First suppose you have already run:
CREATE TABLE tab1 ( col1 NUMBER );
Now say you want to add a column named "col2", but you want them ordered "col2", "col1" when doing a "SELECT * FROM tbl1;"
The suggestion is to run:
ALTER TABLE tab1 ADD (col2 DATE);
RENAME tab1 TO tab1_old;
CREATE TABLE tab1 AS SELECT 0 AS col1, col1 AS col2 FROM tab1_old;
I found this to be incredibly misleading. First of all, you're filling "col1" with zero's so, if you had any data, then you are losing it by doing this. Secondly, it's actually renaming "col1" to "col2" and fails to mention this. So, here's my example, hopefully it's a little clearer:
Suppose you have a table that was created with the following statement:
CREATE TABLE users (first_name varchar(25), last_name varchar(25));
Now say you want to insert middle_name in between first_name and last_name. Here's one way:
ALTER TABLE users ADD middle_name varchar(25);
RENAME users TO users_tmp;
CREATE TABLE users AS SELECT first_name, middle_name, last_name FROM users_tmp;
/* and for good measure... */
DROP TABLE testusers_tmp;
Note that middle_name will default to NULL (implied by the ALTER TABLE statement). You can alternatively set a different default value in the CREATE TABLE statement like so:
CREATE TABLE users AS SELECT first_name, 'some default value' AS middle_name, last_name FROM users_tmp;
This trick could come in handy if you're adding a date field with a default of sysdate, but you want all of the existing records to have some other (e.g. earlier) date value.

Detailed error message for violation of Primary Key constraint in sql2008?

I'm inserting a large amount of rows into an empty table with a primary key constraint on one column.
If there is a duplicate key error, is there any way to find out the value of the key (or row) that caused the error?
Validating the data prior to the insert is sadly not something I can do right now.
Using SQL 2008.
Thanks!
Doing the count(*) / group by thing is something I'm trying to avoid, this is an insert of hundreds of millions of rows from hundreds of different DB's (some of which are on remote servers)...I don't have the time or space to do the insert twice.
The data is supposed to be unique from the providers, but unfortunately their validation doesn't seem to work correctly 100% of the time and I'm trying to at least see where it's failing so I can help them troubleshoot.
Thank you!
There's not a way of doing it that won't slow your process down, but here's one way that will make it easier. You can add an instead-of trigger on that table for inserts and updates. The trigger will check each record before inserting it and make sure it won't cause a primary key violation. You can even create a second table to catch violations, and have a different primary key (like an identity field) on that one, and the trigger will insert the rows into your error-catching table.
Here's an example of how the trigger can work:
CREATE TRIGGER mytrigger ON sometable
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS BEGIN
INSERT INTO sometable SELECT * FROM inserted WHERE ISNUMERIC(somefield) = 1 FROM inserted;
INSERT INTO sometableRejects SELECT * FROM inserted WHERE ISNUMERIC(somefield) = 0 FROM inserted;
END
In that example, I'm checking a field to make sure it's numeric before I insert the data into the table. You'll need to modify that code to check for primary key violations instead - for example, you might join the INSERTED table to your own existing table and only insert rows where you don't find a match.
The solution would depend on how often this happens. If it's <10% of the time then I would do the following:
Insert the data
If error then do Bravax's revised solution (remove constraint, insert, find dup, report and kill dup, enable constraint).
This means it's only costing you on the few times an error occurs.
If this is happening more often then I'd look at sending the boys over to see the providers :-)
Revised:
Since you don't want to insert twice, could you:
Drop the primary key constraint.
Insert all data into the table
Find any duplicates, and remove them
Then re-add the primary key constraint
Previous reply:
Insert the data into a duplicate of the table without the primary key constraint.
Then run a query on it to determine rows which have duplicate values for the rpimary key column.
select count(*), <Primary Key>
from table
group by <Primary Key>
having count(*) > 1
Use SSIS to import the data and have it check for this as part of the data flow. That is the best way to handle. SSIS can send the bad records to a table (that you can later send to the vendor to help them clean up their act) and process the good ones.
I can't believe that SSIS does not easily address this "reality", because, let's face it, oftentimes you need and want to be able to:
See if a record exists with a certain unique or primary key
If it does not, insert it
If it does, either ignore it or update it.
I don't understand how they would let a product out the door without this capability built-in in an easy-to-use manner. Like, say, set an attribute of a component to automatically check this.

Can you limit the number of rows in a (database) table?

We have a database (SQL Server 2005) which we would like to get under source control. As part of that we are going to have a version table to store the current version number of the database. Is there a way to limit that table to only holding one row? Or is storing the version number in a table a bad idea?
Ended up using this approach:
CREATE TABLE [dbo].[DatabaseVersion]
(
[MajorVersionNumber] [int] NOT NULL,
[MinorVersionNumber] [int] NOT NULL,
[RevisionNumber] [int] NOT NULL
)
GO
Insert DataBaseVersion (MajorVersionNumber, MinorVersionNumber, RevisionNumber) values (0, 0, 0)
GO
CREATE TRIGGER DataBaseVersion_Prevent_Delete
ON DataBaseVersion INSTEAD OF DELETE
AS
BEGIN
RAISERROR ('DatabaseVersion must always have one Row. (source = INSTEAD OF DELETE)', 16, 1)
END
GO
CREATE TRIGGER DataBaseVersion_Prevent_Insert
ON DataBaseVersion INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
RAISERROR ('DatabaseVersion must always have one Row. (source = INSTEAD OF INSERT)', 16, 1)
END
GO
Use a trigger.
Generalize the table to hold "settings" and make it a key/value pair
CREATE TABLE Settings (Key nvarchar(max), Value nvarchar(max))
Then make a unique index on Key.
CREATE UNIQUE INDEX SettingsIDX ON Settings (Key)
That will create a table with unique key value pairs, one of which can be Version.
INSERT INTO Settings (Key, Value) VALUES ('Version','1');
You can use Joe Celko's default+primary+check technique:
create table database_version (
lock char(1) primary key default 'x' check (lock='x'),
major_version_number int NOT NULL,
minor_version_number int NOT NULL,
revision_number int NOT NULL
);
Fiddle with it
Not at all. You can simply add another, ascending column to that table (date, id, whatever), and then order the query by that other column descendingly and limit the result to 1 row:
SELECT v.version FROM version v ORDER by v.date DESC LIMIT 1;
This way you even get a history of when each version was reached.
Edit:
The above sql query wouldn't work on SQL Server since it doesn't support the LIMIT statement. One would have to circumvent that deficiency, possibly as described in this "All Things SQL Server" blog entry.
Based on your comments to other responses, it seems that:
You don't want users to just modify the value.
You only ever want one value returned.
The value is static, and scripted.
So, might I suggest that you script a function that returns the static value? Since you'll have to script an update to the version number anyway, you'll simply drop and recreate the function in your script when you update the database.
This has the advantage of being usable from a view or a procedure, and since a function's return value is read-only, it can't be modified (without modifying the function).
EDIT: You also wouldn't have to worry about convoluted solutions for keeping a table constrained to one row.
Just a suggestion.
Keeping a version number for the database makes total sense. However I prefer to have a Version table that can contain multiple rows with fields for the version number, the time the update occured and the user that performed the upgrade.
That way you know which upgrade scripts have been run and can easily see if they have been run out of sequence.
When you want to read the current version number you can just read the most recent record.
If you only store one record you have know way of knowing if a script has been missed out. If you want to be really clever you can put checks in you upgrade scripts so they won't run unless the previous version of the database is correct.
By creating the one allowable original row as part of the database initialization script, and (also in that script) removing Insert permissions to that table for all logins (Only Updates will be allowed)
You might also want to disallow deletes as well...

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