Is it possible to create a table across every schema in your database?
Specifically in Oracle.
I do not want to run the exact same query for all existing schemas.
Solution i have been using is,
Use below query to get all schema names,
select distinct owner FROM all_tables;
Get the result and use regular expression to append/prepend your table creation query.
^ - create table
$ - .tablename \( column1 varchar2(10)\);
run all the resulting queries in oracle work sheet.
You can use a bit of PL/SQL and execute immediate to do this.
For example you can create a table in all schemas if you connect as SYS User and execute the following Script:
begin
for cUsers in (select * from dba_users where account_status ='OPEN')
loop
execute immediate 'create table '||cUsers.username||'.myTable ( id number )';
end loop;
end;
I'm using SQL Server 2008.
How can I pass Table Valued parameter to a Stored procedure across different Databases, but same server?
Should I create the same table type in both databases?
Please, give an example or a link according to the problem.
Thanks for any kind of help.
In response to this comment (if I'm correct and that using TVPs between databases isn't possible):
What choice do I have in this situation? Using XML type?
The purist approach would be to say that if both databases are working with the same data, they ought to be merged into a single database. The pragmatist realizes that this isn't always possible - but since you can obviously change both the caller and callee, maybe just use a temp table that both stored procs know about.
I don't believe it's possible - you can't reference a table type from another database, and even with identical type definitions in both DBs, a value of one type isn't assignable to the other.
You don't pass the temp table between databases. A temp table is always stored in tempdb, and is accessible to your connection, so long as the connection is open and the temp table isn't dropped.
So, you create the temp table in the caller:
CREATE TABLE #Values (ID int not null,ColA varchar(10) not null)
INSERT INTO #Values (ID,ColA)
/* Whatever you do to populate the table */
EXEC OtherDB..OtherProc
And then in the callee:
CREATE PROCEDURE OtherProc
/* No parameter passed */
AS
SELECT * from #Values
Table UDTs are only valid for stored procs within the same database.
So yes you would have to create the type on each server and reference it in the stored procs - e.g. just run the first part of this example in both DBs http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb510489.aspx.
If you don't need the efficency you can always use other methods - i.e. pass an xml document parameter or have the s.p. expect a temp table with the input data.
Edit: added example
create database Test1
create database Test2
go
use Test1
create type PersonalMessage as TABLE
(Message varchar(50))
go
create proc InsertPersonalMessage #Message PersonalMessage READONLY AS
select * from #Message
go
use Test2
create type PersonalMessage as TABLE
(Message varchar(50))
go
create proc InsertPersonalMessage #Message PersonalMessage READONLY AS
select * from #Message
go
use Test1
declare #mymsg PersonalMessage
insert #mymsg select 'oh noes'
exec InsertPersonalMessage #mymsg
go
use Test2
declare #mymsg2 PersonalMessage
insert #mymsg2 select 'oh noes'
exec InsertPersonalMessage #mymsg2
Disadvantage is that there are two copies of the data.
But you would be able to run the batch against each database simultaneously.
Whether this is any better than using a table table is really down to what processing/data sizes you have - btw to use a temp table from an s.p. you just access it from the s.p. code (and it fails if it doesn't exist).
Another way to solve this (though not necessarily the correct way) is to only utilize the UDT as a part of a dynamic SQL call.
USE [db1]
CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[sp_Db2Data_Sync]
AS
BEGIN
/*
*
* Presumably, you have some other logic here that requires this sproc to live in db1.
* Maybe it's how you get your identifier?
*
*/
DECLARE #SQL VARCHAR(MAX) = '
USE [db2]
DECLARE #db2tvp tableType
INSERT INTO #db2tvp
SELECT dataColumn1
FROM db2.dbo.tblData td
WHERE td.Id = ' + CAST(#YourIdentifierHere AS VARCHAR) '
EXEC db2.dbo.sp_BulkData_Sync #db2tvp
'
EXEC(#SQL)
END
It's definitely not a purist approach, and it doesn't work for every use case, but it is technically an option.
I have query in a stored procedure that calls some linked servers with some dynamic SQL. I understand that EF doesn't like that, so I specifically listed all the columns that would be returned. Yet, it still doesn't like that. What am I doing wrong here? I just want EF to be able to detect the columns returned from the stored procedure so I can create the classes I need.
Please see the following code that makes up the last lines of my stored procedure:
SELECT
#TempMain.ID,
#TempMain.Class_Data,
#TempMain.Web_Store_Class1,
#TempMain.Web_Store_Class2,
#TempMain.Web_Store_Status,
#TempMain.Cur_1pc_Cat51_Price,
#TempMain.Cur_1pc_Cat52_Price,
#TempMain.Cur_1pc_Cat61_Price,
#TempMain.Cur_1pc_Cat62_Price,
#TempMain.Cur_1pc_Cat63_Price,
#TempMain.Flat_Length,
#TempMain.Flat_Width,
#TempMain.Item_Height,
#TempMain.Item_Weight,
#TempMain.Um,
#TempMain.Lead_Time_Code,
#TempMain.Wp_Image_Nme,
#TempMain.Wp_Mod_Dte,
#TempMain.Catalog_Price_Chg_Dt,
#TempMain.Description,
#TempMain.Supersede_Ctl,
#TempMain.Supersede_Pn,
TempDesc.Cust_Desc,
TempMfgr.Mfgr_Item_Nbr,
TempMfgr.Mfgr_Name,
TempMfgr.Vendor_ID
FROM
#TempMain
LEFT JOIN TempDesc ON #TempMain.ID = TempDesc.ID
LEFT JOIN TempMfgr ON #TempMain.ID = TempMfgr.ID
EF doesn't support importing stored procedures which build result set from:
Dynamic queries
Temporary tables
The reason is that to import the procedure EF must execute it. Such operation can be dangerous because it can trigger some changes in the database. Because of that EF uses special SQL command before it executes the stored procedure:
SET FMTONLY ON
By executing this command stored procedure will return only "metadata" about columns in its result set and it will not execute its logic. But because the logic wasn't executed there is no temporary table (or built dynamic query) so metadata contains nothing.
You have two choices (except the one which requires re-writing your stored procedure to not use these features):
Define the returned complex type manually (I guess it should work)
Use a hack and just for adding the stored procedure put at its beginning SET FMTONLY OFF. This will allow rest of your SP's code to execute in normal way. Just make sure that your SP doesn't modify any data because these modifications will be executed during import! After successful import remove that hack.
Adding this Non-Logical block of code solved the problem. Even though it will never Hit
IF 1=0 BEGIN
SET FMTONLY OFF
END
Why does my typed dataset not like temporary tables?
http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/adodotnetdataset/thread/fe76d511-64a8-436d-9c16-6d09ecf436ea/
Or you can create a User-Defined Table Type and return that.
CREATE TYPE T1 AS TABLE
( ID bigint NOT NULL
,Field1 varchar(max) COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AI NOT NULL
,Field2 bit NOT NULL
,Field3 varchar(500) NOT NULL
);
GO
Then in the procedure:
DECLARE #tempTable dbo.T1
INSERT #tempTable (ID, Field1, Field2, Field3)
SELECT .....
....
SELECT * FROM #tempTable
Now EF should be able to recognize the returned columns type.
As some others have noted, make sure the procedure actually runs. In particular, in my case, I was running the procedure happily without error in SQL Server Management Studio completely forgetting that I was logged in with admin rights. As soon as I tried running the procedure using my application's principal user I found there was a table in the query that that user did not have permission to access.
Interesting side note: Had the same problem which I first solved by using Table Variables, rather than Temp Tables (just for the import). That wasn't particularly intuitive to me, and threw me off when initially observing my two SProcs: one using Temp tables and one with Table Variables.
(SET FMTONLY OFF never worked for me, so I just changed my SProcs temporarily to get the column info, rather than bothering with the hack on the EF side just as an FYI.)
My best option was really just manually creating the complex type and mapping the function import to it. Worked great, and the only difference ended up being that an additional FactoryMethod to create the properties was included in the Designer.
What I would add is:
That the import also fails if the stored procedures has parameters and returns no result set for the default parameter values.
My stored procedure had 2 float parameters and would not return anything when both parameters are 0.
So in order to add this stored procedure to the entity model, I set the value of these parameters in the stored procedure so that it is guaranteed to return some rows, no matter what the parameters actually are.
Then after adding this stored procedure to the entity model I undid the changes.
both solutions :
1- Define the returned complex type manually (I guess it should work)
2- Use a hack and just for adding the stored procedure put at its beginning SET FMTONLY OFF.
not working with me in some procedure however it worked with other one!
my procedure ends with this line:
SELECT machineId, production [AProduction]
, (select production FROM #ShiftBFinalProd WHERE machineId = #ShiftAFinalProd.machineId) [BProduction]
, (select production FROM #ShiftCFinalProd WHERE machineId = #ShiftAFinalProd.machineId) [CProduction]
FROM #ShiftAFinalProd
ORDER BY machineId
Thanks
In addition to what #tmanthley said, be sure that your stored procedure actually works by running it first in SSMS. I had imported some stored procedures and forgot about a couple dependent scalar functions, which caused EF to determine that the procedure returned no columns. Seems like a mistake I should have caught earlier on, but EF doesn't give you an error message in that case.
Entity Framework will try to get the columns by executing your stored procedure, passing NULL for every argument.
Please make sure that the stored procedure will return something under all the circumstances. Note it may have been smarter for Entity Framework to execute the stored proc with default values for the arguments, as opposed to NULLs.
ER does the following to get the metadata of the table:
SET FMTONLY ON
This will break your stored procedure in various circumstances, in particular, if it uses a temporary table.
So to get a result as complex type; please try by adding
SET FMTONLY OFF;
This worked for me - hope it works for you too.
Referred from https://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/e7f598a2-6827-4b27-a09d-aefe733b48e6/entity-model-add-function-import-stored-procedure-returns-no-columns?forum=adodotnetentityframework
In my case adding SET NOCOUNT ON; at the top of the procedure fixed the problem. It's best practice anyway.
In my case SET FMTONLY OFF did not work. The method I followed is, I took backup of original stored procedure and replace with only column name like the below query.
Select Convert(max,'') as Id,Convert(max,'') as Name
After this change, create new function import, complex type in entity framework.
Once the function import and complex type is created, replace the above query with your original stored procedure.
SET FMTONLY OFF
worked for me for one of the procedure but failed for other procedure. Following steps helps me to resolve my problem
Within a stored procedure, I have created temporary table with the same column type and inserted all the data returned by dynamic query to temp table.
and selected the temp table data.
Create table #temp
(
-- columns with same types as dynamic query
)
EXEC sp_executeSQL #sql
insert into #temp
Select * from #temp
drop table #temp
Deleted existing complex type, import function and stored procedure instance for old stored procedure and updated entity model for current new procedure.
Edit the imported Function in entity modal for desired complex type, you will get all the column information there which is not getting for previous stored procedure.
once you have done with the type creation you can delete the temporary table from stored procedure and then refresh Entity Framework.
In Entity framework, while getting column information the sql executes the procedure with passing null values in parameter. So I handled null case differently by creating a temp table with all the required columns and returning all the columns with no value when null is passed to the procedure.
In my procedure there was dynamic query, something like
declare #category_id int
set #category_id = (SELECT CATEGORY_ID FROM CORE_USER where USER_ID = #USER_ID)
declare #tableName varchar(15)
declare #sql VARCHAR(max)
declare #USER_IDT varchar(100)
declare #SESSION_IDT varchar(10)
IF (#category_id = 3)
set #tableName = 'STUD_STUDENT'
else if(#category_id = 4)
set #tableName = 'STUD_GUARDIAN'
if isnull(#tableName,'')<>''
begin
set #sql = 'SELECT [USER_ID], [FIRST_NAME], SCHOOL_NAME, SOCIETY_NAME, SCHOOL_ID,
SESSION_ID, [START_DATE], [END_DATE]
from #tableName
....
EXECUTE (#sql)
END
ELSE
BEGIN
SELECT * from #UserPrfTemp
END
I was not getting the column information in
my case after using the set FMTONLY OFF trick.
This is temp table I created to get the blank data.
Now I am getting the column info
Create table #UserPrfTemp
(
[USER_ID] bigint,
[FIRST_NAME] nvarchar(60),
SCHOOL_NAME nvarchar(60),
SOCIETY_NAME nvarchar(200)
.....
}
I solved this problem creating a table variable and then returning from it.
DECLARE #VarTable TABLE (
NeededColumn1 VARCHAR(100),
NeededColumn2 INT,
NeededColumn3 VARCHAR(100)
)
...
--Fetch Data from Linked server here
...
INSERT INTO #VarTable (NeededColumn1,NeededColumn2,NeededColumn3)
SELECT Column1, Column2, Column3
FROM #TempTable
SELECT * FROM #VarTable.
In that manner, your the SP result will be bounded to the table variable, which EF has access to.
I discovered a method that should help most people out whatever's happening.
Pull up your favourite SQL client and run the proc that you're trying to update with every parameter = null. Visual Studio is literally trying to do this when SET FMTONLY ON. Run a trace. You'll see.
You'll probably get an error, or unexpected data out. Fix that and your issue is fixed.
In my case the function read in JSON and failed because the JSON string was empty.
I just put something like
IF(#FooJSON IS NULL)
BEGIN
SELECT 1 VAR1, 2 VAR2;
END
ELSE
--OTHER LOGIC
That's probably an ugly solution, but I inherited this mess and we don't go into Ravenholm.
Change #Temp tables with WITH SQL EXPRESSION
I have two mysql databases that have almost the same structure and representing the data of the same web app but one of them represents the current version and second one was made long time ago.
How can I create the database with both dumps inside but with old_ prefix for tables from the first and new_ prefix for tables from the second database?
Is there any mysqldump options to setup the prefix or other solution?
A "mysqldump file" is just a text file full of SQL statements, so you can make quick modifications like these in a text editor.
1) Dump the two databases individually.
2) Edit the "old" dump file:
add the correct use mydatabase; line
do a search and replace to add old_ in front of the table names.
3) Then, cat dump1 dump2 > combined_dump
4) mysql < combined_dump
This sed script is perhaps a little safer. Save it to a file and use sed -f to filter the dump file.
s/\(-- Table structure for table `\)\([^`]\+\)\(`\)/\1xyzzy_\2\3/
s/\(DROP TABLE IF EXISTS `\)\([^`]\+\)\(`\)/\1xyzzy_\2\3/
s/\(CREATE TABLE `\)\([^`]\+\)\(` (\)/\1xyzzy_\2\3/
s/\(-- Dumping data for table `\)\([^`]\+\)\(`\)/\1xyzzy_\2\3/
s/\(\/\*!40000 ALTER TABLE `\)\([^`]\+\)\(` DISABLE KEYS \*\/\)/\1xyzzy_\2\3/
s/\(LOCK TABLES `\)\([^`]\+\)\(` WRITE\)/\1xyzzy_\2\3/
s/\(INSERT INTO `\)\([^`]\+\)\(` VALUES (\)/\1xyzzy_\2\3/
s/\(\/\*!40000 ALTER TABLE `\)\([^`]\+\)\(` ENABLE KEYS \*\/\)/\1xyzzy_\2\3/
Search and replace xyzzy_ with your desired table prefix.
Restore both the databases as it is.
Use the following stored procedure to move all the tables from one DB to another DB after adding the prefix.
After moving delete the source database.
This stored procedure gets the table list from MySQL's inmemory tables in information_schema and automatically moves to another DB using the RENAME command.
DELIMITER $$
USE `db`$$
DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS `renameDbTables`$$
CREATE DEFINER=`db`#`%` PROCEDURE `renameDbTables`(
IN from_db VARCHAR(20),
IN to_db VARCHAR(30),
IN to_name_prefix VARCHAR(20)
)
BEGIN
/*
call db.renameDbTables('db1','db2','db_');
db1.xxx will be renamed to db2.db_xxx
*/
DECLARE from_state_table VARCHAR(20) DEFAULT '';
DECLARE done INT DEFAULT 0;
DECLARE b VARCHAR(255) DEFAULT '';
DECLARE cur1 CURSOR FOR SELECT TABLE_NAME FROM information_schema.TABLES
WHERE TABLE_SCHEMA=from_db;
DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR SQLSTATE '02000' SET done = 1;
OPEN cur1;
REPEAT
FETCH cur1 INTO from_state_table;
IF NOT done THEN
-- select from_state_table;
SET #QUERY = '';
SET #QUERY = CONCAT(#QUERY,'RENAME TABLE ',from_db,'.', from_state_table,' TO ',to_db,'.', to_name_prefix, from_state_table,';');
-- SELECT #query;
PREPARE s FROM #QUERY;
EXECUTE s;
DEALLOCATE PREPARE s;
END IF;
UNTIL done END REPEAT;
CLOSE cur1;
END$$
DELIMITER ;
Import them into different databases. Say they're called newdb and olddb. Then you can copy table1 to old_table1 like:
insert into newdb.old_table1
select *
from olddb.table1
If you have a huge number of tables, generate a script to copy them:
select concat('insert into newdb.old_', table_name,
'select * from olddb.', table_name, ';')
from information_schema.tables
where table_schema = 'olddb'
I have done the following using mysqldump and sed in the past, but I'll admit it may only be effective for one table at a time.
$ mysqldump -u user --password=mypass MyDB MyTable | sed s/MyTable/old_Mytable/ | mysql -u other_user -p NewDB
You could create a shell script with a list of the commands, one for each table, or perhaps another user has a way to modify this to work against multiple tables effectively in one shot.
Peer
I may be misunderstanding the problem, but it sounds like you want to dump the 2 databases into a single SQL file to be used to restore the dbs, with the old tables going into one schema and the new tables going into another.
IF that's what you are trying to do, the simplest approach is just to insert the proper "use database" command before each dump.
Like so:
echo "use old_db;" > /tmp/combined_dump.sql
mysqldump old_db >> /tmp/combined_dump.sql
echo "use new_db;" >> /tmp/combined_dump.sql
mysqldump new_db >> /tmp/combined_dump.sql
Run the following query:
SELECT Concat('ALTER TABLE ', TABLE_NAME, ' RENAME TO my_prefix_', TABLE_NAME, ';') FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_schema = 'my_database'
The output of which is several queries. Then run those queries.
This won't work if there's constraints, or other complicated things, but for simple DBs this works fine.
in my SQL Server 2008 database I have a number of different tables with the same structure. I query them in different stored procedures. My first try was to pass the table name to the stored procedure, like:
CREATE PROCEDURE MyTest
#tableName nvarchar(255)
AS
BEGIN
SELECT * FROM #tableName
END
But we can't use parameters for table names in SQL. So I asked you and tried the solution with using Synonyms instead of a parameter for the table name:
CREATE PROCEDURE MyTest
#tableName nvarchar(255)
AS
BEGIN
EXEC SetSimilarityTableNameSynonym #tbl = #tableName;
SELECT * FROM dbo.CurrentSimilarityTable
END
SetSimilarityTableNameSynonym is a SP to set the Synonym dbo.CurrentSimilarityTable to the passed value (the specific table name). It looks like:
CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[SetSimilarityTableNameSynonym]
#tbl nvarchar(255)
AS
BEGIN
IF object_id('dbo.CurrentSimilarityTable', 'SN') IS NOT NULL
DROP SYNONYM CurrentSimilarityTable;
-- Set the synonym for each existing table
IF #tbl = 'byArticle'
CREATE SYNONYM dbo.CurrentSimilarityTable FOR dbo.similarity_byArticle;
...
END
Now, as you probably see, the problem is with concurrent access to the SPs which will "destroy" each others assigned synonym. So I tried to create dynamic synonyms for each single SP-call with a GUID via NewID()
DECLARE #theGUID uniqueidentifier;
SET #theGUID=NEWID()
SET #theSynonym = 'dbo.SimTabSyn_' + CONVERT(nvarchar(255), #theGUID);
BUT ... I can't use the dynamical created name to create a synonym:
CREATE SYNONYM #theSynonym FOR dbo.similarity_byArticle;
doesn't work.
Has anybody an idea, how to get dynamical synonyms running? Is this even possible?
Thanks in advance,
Frank
All I can suggest is to run the CREATE SYNONYM in dynamic SQL. And this also means your code is running at quite high rights (db_owner or ddl_admin). You may need EXECUTE AS OWNER to allow it when you secure the code.
And how many synonyms will you end up with for the same table? If you have to do it this way, I'd use OBJECT_ID not NEWID and test first so you have one synonym per table.
But if you have one synonym per table then why not use the table name...?
What is the point is there creating 1 or more synonyms for the same table, given the table names are already unique...
I'd fix the database design.
Why would you want multiple concurrent users to overwrite the single resource (synonym)?
If your MyTest procedure is taking a the table name as a parameter, why not simply do dynamic SQL? You can validate the #tableName against against a hardcoded list of tables that this procedure is allowed to select from, or against sys.tables