I run the following query:
SELECT
orderdetails.sku,
orderdetails.mf_item_number,
orderdetails.qty,
orderdetails.price,
supplier.supplierid,
supplier.suppliername,
supplier.dropshipfees,
cost = (SELECT supplier_item.price
FROM supplier_item,
orderdetails,
supplier
WHERE supplier_item.sku = orderdetails.sku
AND supplier_item.supplierid = supplier.supplierid)
FROM orderdetails,
supplier,
group_master
WHERE invoiceid = '339740'
AND orderdetails.mfr_id = supplier.supplierid
AND group_master.sku = orderdetails.sku
I get the following error:
Msg 512, Level 16, State 1, Line 2
Subquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when the subquery follows =, !=, <, <= , >, >= or when the subquery is used as an expression.
Any ideas?
Try this:
SELECT
od.Sku,
od.mf_item_number,
od.Qty,
od.Price,
s.SupplierId,
s.SupplierName,
s.DropShipFees,
si.Price as cost
FROM
OrderDetails od
INNER JOIN Supplier s on s.SupplierId = od.Mfr_ID
INNER JOIN Group_Master gm on gm.Sku = od.Sku
INNER JOIN Supplier_Item si on si.SKU = od.Sku and si.SupplierId = s.SupplierID
WHERE
od.invoiceid = '339740'
This will return multiple rows that are identical except for the cost column. Look at the different cost values that are returned and figure out what is causing the different values. Then ask somebody which cost value they want, and add the criteria to the query that will select that cost.
Check to see if there are any triggers on the table you are trying to execute queries against. They can sometimes throw this error as they are trying to run the update/select/insert trigger that is on the table.
You can modify your query to disable then enable the trigger if the trigger DOES NOT need to be executed for whatever query you are trying to run.
ALTER TABLE your_table DISABLE TRIGGER [the_trigger_name]
UPDATE your_table
SET Gender = 'Female'
WHERE (Gender = 'Male')
ALTER TABLE your_table ENABLE TRIGGER [the_trigger_name]
SELECT COLUMN
FROM TABLE
WHERE columns_name
IN ( SELECT COLUMN FROM TABLE WHERE columns_name = 'value');
note: when we are using sub-query we must focus on these points:
if our sub query returns 1 value in this case we need to use (=,!=,<>,<,>....)
else (more than one value), in this case we need to use (in, any, all, some )
cost = Select Supplier_Item.Price from Supplier_Item,orderdetails,Supplier
where Supplier_Item.SKU=OrderDetails.Sku and
Supplier_Item.SupplierId=Supplier.SupplierID
This subquery returns multiple values, SQL is complaining because it can't assign multiple values to cost in a single record.
Some ideas:
Fix the data such that the existing subquery returns only 1 record
Fix the subquery such that it only returns one record
Add a top 1 and order by to the subquery (nasty solution that DBAs hate - but it "works")
Use a user defined function to concatenate the results of the subquery into a single string
The fix is to stop using correlated subqueries and use joins instead. Correlated subqueries are essentially cursors as they cause the query to run row-by-row and should be avoided.
You may need a derived table in the join in order to get the value you want in the field if you want only one record to match, if you need both values then the ordinary join will do that but you will get multiple records for the same id in the results set. If you only want one, you need to decide which one and do that in the code, you could use a top 1 with an order by, you could use max(), you could use min(), etc, depending on what your real requirement for the data is.
I had the same problem , I used in instead of = , from the Northwind database example :
Query is : Find the Companies that placed orders in 1997
Try this :
SELECT CompanyName
FROM Customers
WHERE CustomerID IN (
SELECT CustomerID
FROM Orders
WHERE YEAR(OrderDate) = '1997'
);
Instead of that :
SELECT CompanyName
FROM Customers
WHERE CustomerID =
(
SELECT CustomerID
FROM Orders
WHERE YEAR(OrderDate) = '1997'
);
Either your data is bad, or it's not structured the way you think it is. Possibly both.
To prove/disprove this hypothesis, run this query:
SELECT * from
(
SELECT count(*) as c, Supplier_Item.SKU
FROM Supplier_Item
INNER JOIN orderdetails
ON Supplier_Item.sku = orderdetails.sku
INNER JOIN Supplier
ON Supplier_item.supplierID = Supplier.SupplierID
GROUP BY Supplier_Item.SKU
) x
WHERE c > 1
ORDER BY c DESC
If this returns just a few rows, then your data is bad. If it returns lots of rows, then your data is not structured the way you think it is. (If it returns zero rows, I'm wrong.)
I'm guessing that you have orders containing the same SKU multiple times (two separate line items, both ordering the same SKU).
The select statement in the cost part of your select is returning more than one value. You need to add more where clauses, or use an aggregation.
The error implies that this subquery is returning more than 1 row:
(Select Supplier_Item.Price from Supplier_Item,orderdetails,Supplier where Supplier_Item.SKU=OrderDetails.Sku and Supplier_Item.SupplierId=Supplier.SupplierID )
You probably don't want to include the orderdetails and supplier tables in the subquery, because you want to reference the values selected from those tables in the outer query. So I think you want the subquery to be simply:
(Select Supplier_Item.Price from Supplier_Item where Supplier_Item.SKU=OrderDetails.Sku and Supplier_Item.SupplierId=Supplier.SupplierID )
I suggest you read up on correlated vs. non-correlated subqueries.
As others have suggested, the best way to do this is to use a join instead of variable assignment. Re-writing your query to use a join (and using the explicit join syntax instead of the implicit join, which was also suggested--and is the best practice), you would get something like this:
select
OrderDetails.Sku,
OrderDetails.mf_item_number,
OrderDetails.Qty,
OrderDetails.Price,
Supplier.SupplierId,
Supplier.SupplierName,
Supplier.DropShipFees,
Supplier_Item.Price as cost
from
OrderDetails
join Supplier on OrderDetails.Mfr_ID = Supplier.SupplierId
join Group_Master on Group_Master.Sku = OrderDetails.Sku
join Supplier_Item on
Supplier_Item.SKU=OrderDetails.Sku and Supplier_Item.SupplierId=Supplier.SupplierID
where
invoiceid='339740'
Even after 9 years of the original post, this helped me.
If you are receiving these types of errors without any clue, there should be a trigger, function related to the table, and obviously it should end up with an SP, or function with selecting/filtering data NOT USING Primary Unique column. If you are searching/filtering using the Primary Unique column there won't be any multiple results. Especially when you are assigning value for a declared variable. The SP never gives you en error but only an runtime error.
"System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException (0x80131904): Subquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when the subquery follows =, !=, <, <= , >, >= or when the subquery is used as an expression.
The statement has been terminated."
In my case obviously there was no clue, but only this error message. There was a trigger connected to the table and the table updating by the trigger also had another trigger likewise it ended up with two triggers and in the end with an SP. The SP was having a select clause which was resulting in multiple rows.
SET #Variable1 =(
SELECT column_gonna_asign
FROM dbo.your_db
WHERE Non_primary_non_unique_key= #Variable2
If this returns multiple rows, you are in trouble.
I'm having some difficulty combining the following queries, so that the results display in one row rather than in multiple rows:
SELECT value FROM dbo.parameter WHERE name='xxxxx.name'
SELECT dbo.contest.name AS Event_Name
FROM contest
INNER JOIN open_box on open_box.contest_id = contest.id
GROUP BY dbo.contest.name
SELECT COUNT(*) FROM open_option AS total_people
SELECT SUM(scanned) AS TotalScanned,SUM(number) AS Totalnumber
FROM dbo.open_box
GROUP BY contest_id
SELECT COUNT(*) FROM open AS reff
WHERE refer = 'True'
I would like to display data from the fields in each column similar to what is shown in the image below. Any help is appreciated!
Tab's solution is fine, I just wanted to show an alternative way of doing this. The following statement uses subqueries to get the information in one row:
SELECT
[xxxx.name]=(SELECT value FROM dbo.parameter WHERE name='xxxxx.name'),
[Event Name]=(SELECT dbo.contest.name
FROM contest
INNER JOIN open_box on open_box.contest_id = contest.id
GROUP BY dbo.contest.name),
[Total People]=(SELECT COUNT(*) FROM open_option),
[Total Scanned]=(SELECT SUM(scanned)
FROM dbo.open_box
GROUP BY contest_id),
[Total Number]=(SELECT SUM(number)
FROM dbo.open_box
GROUP BY contest_id),
Ref=(SELECT COUNT(*) FROM open WHERE refer = 'True');
This requires the Total Scanned and Total Number to be queried seperately.
Update: if you then want to INSERT that into another table there are essentially two ways to do that.
Create the table directly from the SELECT statement:
SELECT
-- the fields from the first query
INTO
[database_name].[schema_name].[new_table_name]; -- creates table new_table_name
Insert into a table that already exists from the INSERT
INSERT INTO [database_name].[schema_name].[existing_table_name](
-- the fields in the existing_table_name
)
SELECT
-- the fields from the first query
Just CROSS JOIN the five queries as derived tables:
SELECT * FROM (
Query1
) AS q1
CROSS JOIN (
Query2
) AS q2
CROSS JOIN (...
Assuming that each of your individual queries only returns one row, then this CROSS JOIN should result in only one row.
I need to find the items that exist in table A but not in table B. Now that would be really simple in MySQL doing a join like this
select * from A
left join B on A.key=B.key
where B.key is null
However for some reason this is not working in MSSQL. I have created the query without the where clause to see all the results and I only see matches, not null values. Do you have any idea why this is not working?
I know I can alternatively use "when not exists" but I want to know the reason as to why with a join is not working.
I am adding the code for your review
select Absences.CustomerID, b.*
from (
select * from openquery(JUAN_INTERFACE,'select cmp_wwn from Planet_Customers where i_outcome =4')) b
left join Absences on Absences.CustomerID = b.cmp_wwn
where Absences.Type = 3223
Your where clause is filtering out null values:
where Absences.Type = 3223
You are left-joining from the openquery subquery to Absences; and then filtering only rows that have a specific (non-null) value in an Absences column.
Did you mean to join the other way around, from Absenses to openquery?
I think my head is muddy or something. I'm trying to figure out how a t-sql update works without a join when updating one table from another. I've always used joins in the past but came across a stored proc where someone else created one without a join. This update is being used in SQL 2008R2 and it works.
Update table1
SET col1 = (SELECT TOP 1 colX FROM table2 WHERE colZ = colY),
col2 = (SELECT TOP 1 colE FROM table2 WHERE colZ = colY)
Obviously, colY is a field in table1. To get the same results in a select statement (not update), a join is required. I guess I don't understand how an update works behind the scenes but it must be doing some kind of join?
SQL Server translates those subqueries into joins. You can look at this by getting the query plan. You can write an equivalent query with UPDATE ... FROM ... JOIN syntax and observe the query plan to be essentially the same.
The sample code shown is unusual, hard to understand, redundant and inflexible. I recommend against using this style.
No it's doing a sub query, well two in this case. Be damn painful if you have another 98 col fields.
You can do something similar for select
select *,
(SELECT TOP 1 colX FROM table2 WHERE colZ = colY) as col1
From table1
A left join would simply be more efficient
Your example unless the dbms optimises it it running the subquery(ies) for each row in table.
Got to say whoever wrote it is less than competent.
These subqueries are what is called correlated subqueries. If you were to write the same query as a SELECT rather than an UPDATE it would look like this.
SELECT col1 = (SELECT TOP 1 table2.colX FROM table2 WHERE table2.colZ = table1.colY),
col2 = (SELECT TOP 1 table2.colE FROM table2 WHERE table2.colZ = table1.colY)
FROM table1
The JOIN is in the fact that you are referencing a column from an outside table on the inside of the subquery. Table1 is referenced in the UPDATE command. You can include a FROM clause but it isn't required for a setup like this.
You can use the same syntax in a SELECT with no join, but you need to alias the table if colY also exists in table2
SELECT (SELECT TOP 1 colX FROM table2 WHERE colZ = T.colY)
, (SELECT TOP 1 colE FROM table2 WHERE colZ = T.colY)
FROM table1 AS T
I only ever use this sort of thing when building up an ad hoc query just for my own infomation. If it's going to be put into any sort of permanent code I'll convert it to a join as it's easier to read and more maintainable.
I'll describe what I am trying to achieve:
I am passing down to a SP an xml with name value pairs that I put into a table variable, let's say #nameValuePairs.
I need to retrieve a list of IDs for expressions (a table) with those exact match of name-value pairs (attributes, another table) associated.
This is my schema:
Expressions table --> (expressionId, attributeId)
Attributes table --> (attributeId, attributeName, attributeValue)
After trying complicated stuff with dynamic SQL and evil cursors (which works but it's painfully slow) this is what I've got now:
--do the magic plz!
-- retrieve number of name-value pairs
SET #noOfAttributes = select count(*) from #nameValuePairs
select distinct
e.expressionId, a.attributeName, a.attributeValue
into
#temp
from
expressions e
join
attributes a
on
e.attributeId = a.attributeId
join --> this join does the filtering
#nameValuePairs nvp
on
a.attributeName = nvp.name and a.attributeValue = nvp.value
group by
e.expressionId, a.attributeName, a.attributeValue
-- now select the IDs I need
-- since I did a select distinct above if the number of matches
-- for a given ID is the same as noOfAttributes then BINGO!
select distinct
expressionId
from
#temp
group by expressionId
having count(*) = #noOfAttributes
Can people please review and see if they can spot any problems? Is there a better way of doing this?
Any help appreciated!
I belive that this would satisfy the requirement you're trying to meet. I'm not sure how much prettier it is, but it should work and wouldn't require a temp table:
SET #noOfAttributes = select count(*) from #nameValuePairs
SELECT e.expressionid
FROM expression e
LEFT JOIN (
SELECT attributeid
FROM attributes a
JOIN #nameValuePairs nvp ON nvp.name = a.Name AND nvp.Value = a.value
) t ON t.attributeid = e.attributeid
GROUP BY e.expressionid
HAVING SUM(CASE WHEN t.attributeid IS NULL THEN (#noOfAttributes + 1) ELSE 1 END) = #noOfAttributes
EDIT: After doing some more evaluation, I found an issue where certain expressions would be included that shouldn't have been. I've modified my query to take that in to account.
One error I see is that you have no table with an alias of b, yet you are using: a.attributeId = b.attributeId.
Try fixing that and see if it works, unless I am missing something.
EDIT: I think you just fixed this in your edit, but is it supposed to be a.attributeId = e.attributeId?
This is not a bad approach, depending on the sizes and indexes of the tables, including #nameValuePairs. If it these row counts are high or it otherwise becomes slow, you may do better to put #namValuePairs into a temp table instead, add appropriate indexes, and use a single query instead of two separate ones.
I do notice that you are putting columns into #temp that you are not using, would be faster to exclude them (though it would mean duplicate rows in #temp). Also, you second query has both a "distinct" and a "group by" on the same columns. You don't need both so I would drop the "distinct" (probably won't affect performance, because the optimizer already figured this out).
Finally, #temp would probably be faster with a clustered non-unique index on expressionid (I am assuming that this is SQL 2005). You could add it after the SELECT..INTO, but it is usually as fast or faster to add it before you load. This would require you to CREATE #temp first, add the clustered and then use INSERT..SELECT to load it instead.
I'll add an example of merging the queries in a mintue... Ok, here's one way to merge them into a single query (this should be 2000-compatible also):
-- retrieve number of name-value pairs
SET #noOfAttributes = select count(*) from #nameValuePairs
-- now select the IDs I need
-- since I did a select distinct above if the number of matches
-- for a given ID is the same as noOfAttributes then BINGO!
select
expressionId
from
(
select distinct
e.expressionId, a.attributeName, a.attributeValue
from
expressions e
join
attributes a
on
e.attributeId = a.attributeId
join --> this join does the filtering
#nameValuePairs nvp
on
a.attributeName = nvp.name and a.attributeValue = nvp.value
) as Temp
group by expressionId
having count(*) = #noOfAttributes