I am trying to update a lead table to assign a random person from a lookup table. Here is the generic schema:
TableA (header),
ID int,
name varchar (30)
TableB (detail),
ID int,
fkTableA int, (foreign key to TableA.ID)
recordOwner varchar(30) null
other detail colums..
TableC (owners),
ID int,
fkTableA int (foreign key to TableA.ID)
name varchar(30)
TableA has 10 entries, one for each type of sales lead pool. TableB has thousands of entries for each row in TableA. I want to assign the correct recordOwners from TableC to and even number of rows each (or as close as I can). TableC will have anywhere from one entry for each row in tableA or up to 10.
Can this be done in one statement? It doesn't have to be. I can't seem to figure out the best approach for speed. Any thoughts or samples are appreciated.
Updated:
TableA has a 1 to many relation ship with TableC. For every record of TableA, TableC will have at least one row, which represents an owner that will need to be assigned to a row in TableB.
TableA
int name
1 LeadSourceOne
2 LeadSourceTwo
TableC
int(id) int(fkTableA) varchar(name)
1 1 Tom
2 1 Bob
3 2 Timmy
4 2 John
5 2 Steve
6 2 Bill
TableB initial data
int(id) int(fkTableA) varchar(recordOwner) (other detail columns)
1 1 NULL ....
2 1 NULL ....
3 1 NULL ....
4 2 NULL ....
5 2 NULL ....
6 2 NULL ....
7 2 NULL ....
8 2 NULL ....
9 2 NULL ....
TableB end result
int(id) int(fkTableA) varchar(recordOwner) (other detail columns)
1 1 TOM ....
2 1 BOB ....
3 1 TOM ....
4 2 TIMMY ....
5 2 JOHN ....
6 2 STEVE ....
7 2 BILL ....
8 2 TIMMY ....
9 2 BILL ....
Basically I need to randomly assign a record from tableC to tableB based on the relationship to tableA.
UPDATE TabB SET name = (SELECT TOP 1 coalesce(tabC.name,'') FROM TabC INNER JOIN TabA ON TabC.idA = TabA.id WHERE tabA.Id = TabB.idA )
Should work but its not tested.
Try this:
UPDATE TableB
SET recordOwner = (SELECT TOP(1) [name]
FROM TableC
ORDER BY NEWID())
WHERE recordOwner IS NULL
I ended up looping thru and updating x percent of the detail records based on how many owners I had. The end result is something like this:
create table #tb_owners(userId varchar(30), processed bit)
insert into #tb_owners(
userId,
processed)
select userId = name,
processed = 0
from tableC
where fkTableA = 1
select #percentUpdate = cast(100 / count(*) as numeric(8,2))
from #tb_owners
while exists(select 1 from #tb_owners o where o.processed = 0)
begin
select top 1
#userFullName = o.name
from #tb_owners o
where o.processed = 0
order by newId()
update tableB
set recordOwner = #userFullName
from tableB ptbpd
inner join (
select top (#percentUpdate) percent
id
from tableB
where recordOwner is null
order by newId()
) nd on (ptbpd.id = nd.id)
update #tb_owners
set processed = 1
where userId = #oUserId
end
--there may be some left over, set to last person used
update tableB
set recordOwner = #userFullName
from tableB
where ptbpd.recordOwner is null
Related
I have a temp table that looks something like this:
Record DepartmentId PositionId EmployeeId StatusId CustomerId
1 Null Null Null 4
2 7 454 Null Null
3 Null 454 Null 3
3 Null Null Null Null 214
3 Null Null Null Null 100
3 Null Null Null Null 312
4 Null Null Null Null 357
I inserted the above into the temp table from tables that looked like this:
Record Table Record-to-Department Record-to-Position
Record Name Record DepartmentId Record PositionId
1 Red 2 7 2 454
2 blue 3 454
3 Green
4 Purple
Record-To-Status Record-To-Customer
Record StatusId Record CustomerId
1 4 3 214
3 3 3 100
3 312
4 357
I have an employee whose record looks something like this:
EmployeeId DepartmentId PositionId StatusId
342 7 454 4
Employee Customers:
EmployeeId CustomerId
342 357
342 95
342 720
In this scenario, it would return Record 1 (because it matches the StatusId), Record 2 (because it matches both the DepartmentId and the PositionId), but it would not return Record 3 because it only matches the PositionId and not the StatusId, and it would return RecordId 4 because one of the Employee CustomerIds matches the CustomerId on Record 4.
I got part of this answer on another question enter link description here (please forgive me I am new and trying to figure out how to ask everything I need to know), but I can't figure out how to handle the multi-records.
I tried selecting the Employees customer Id's into a table variable and then attempted to use the Coalesce like this:
Declare #Customers table(CustomerId int)
INSERT INTO #Customers(CustomerId)
SELECT DISTINCT S.CustomerId
FROM employee_Customers
Select * from tbl
WHERE
COAlesce(StatusId,#StatusId)=#StatusId AND
COALESCE(DepartmentId,#DepartmentId)=#DepartmentId AND
Coalesce(PositionId,#PositionId)=#PositionId AND
Coalesce(EmployeeCompanyId,#EmployeeCompanyId) = #EmployeeCompanyId AND
COALESCE((Select CustomerId from tbl_Requirement_to_Customer),(Select CustomerId from #Customers)) = (Select CustomerId from #Customers)
But I receive the error "Subquery Returned more than 1 value".
I have a possible solution you can try. I don't think it will be plug-and-play but hopefully you can adapt it to your situation. I am using just the data as presented in your temp table, your employee record and your Employee-customers correlation.
The basic logic is to join your temp table to the employee(s) using or condition, but then to get a count of populated values, and compare this count to a count of the number of matching values, which must be at least the first count and greater than zero.
This returns your desired output:
select t.*
from Temp t
left join emp e on e.DepartmentId=t.DepartmentId or e.PositionId=t.PositionId or e.EmployeeId=t.EmployeeId or e.StatusId=t.StatusId
outer apply (
select case when exists (
select * from EmployeeCustomers ec join emp e on e.EmployeeId=ec.EmployeeId where ec.CustomerID=t.CustomerId
) then 1 else 0 end CustomerIdMatch
)c
outer apply (
values (
Iif(t.departmentId is null,0,1) +
Iif(t.PositionId is null,0,1) +
Iif(t.EmployeeId is null,0,1) +
Iif(t.StatusId is null,0,1) +
c.CustomerIdMatch
))x(Cnt)
outer apply (
values (
Iif(t.departmentId=e.DepartmentId,1,0) +
Iif(t.PositionId=e.PositionId,1,0) +
Iif(t.EmployeeId=e.EmployeeId,1,0) +
Iif(t.StatusId=e.StatusId,1,0) +
c.CustomerIdMatch
))y(Cnt2)
where cnt2>=cnt and cnt2>0
See working DB<>Fiddle
I have a table SaleOrder(SO) and SaleOrderDetail(SOD) with one to may relation ship. ID and SOID are primary key foreign key.
i need to update SO Table with Values of SOD Tables after some aggregation based on primary key.
please see below.
SO
-----------------------------------
ID SaleOrderQty
1 --
2 --
SOD
-------------------------------------
SOID Qty PerPack
1 3 10
1 7 6
2 4 5
2 5 8
multiply Qty with PerPack
1 3*10 = 30
1 7*6 = 42
2 4*5 = 20
2 5*8 = 40
and add up all multiplication results based on keys
1 30+42 = 72
2 20+40 = 60
and update Parent table
SO
-----------------------------------
ID SaleOrderQty
1 72
2 60
i tried this
Declare #Id varchar(50)
declare #Next int
set #Next =1
WHILE #Next <= 30
Begin
Select #Id = Id From SO Where SOSerial=#Next
Update SO
Set SaleOrderQty = (SELECT sum((SOD.Quantity* SOD.PerPack)) total
FROM SO INNER JOIN
SOD ON SO.Id = SOD.SOId
WHERE SOD.SOId=#Id
group by SOD.SOId)
set #Next=#Next+1
--print #Id
End
sums are ok but it set all SaleOrderQty values with the last sum.
One more thing. i have 30 records in parent table. when query completes it shows 30 messages.
Per my prior comment, you want to avoid loops.
update so
set SaleOrderQty = a.calc
from SO so
join (select sod.soid,sum((SOD.Quantity* SOD.PerPack)) as calc
from sod
group by sod.SOID) a on a.SOID=so.ID
where so.SaleOrderQty is null --optional
I couldn't find that via search, so I guess I am not asking it the right way, so help is welcome.
We have a lookup table:
Id Name
------------------
1 "Test"
2 "New"
3 "InProgress"
Table2:
StatusId SomethingElse
1
2
Table 1
ID Other Other StatusId (Fkey to Table2) ...
Then we have a view that selects from several tables and one of the columns is a CASE Statement:
SELECT * FROM Table1 t1 -- has million records
CASE When t1.StatusId = 1 THEN (SELECT Name from LOOKUP table where ID = 1) END --'Test'
CASE When t1.StatusId = 2 THEN (SELECT Name from LOOKUP table where ID = 2) END --'New'
CASE When t3.Date is not null THEN (SELECT Name from LOOKUP table where ID = 3) END --'In Progress'
-- AND ALSO the case look at other tables another 5-6 tables and there are conditions from there
INNER JOIN Table2 t2 on ...
INNER JOIN Table3 t3 on ...
As you see these are really static values.
I want to load them once into variables, e.g.
#LookUp1 = SELECT [NAME] FROM LookUP WHERE Id = 1,
#LookUp2 = SELECT [NAME] FROM LookUP WHERE Id = 2
and replace the select in the CASE statement to this:
When StatusId = 1 THEN #LookUp
When StatusId = 2 THEN #LookUp2
The view loops through millions of records and it gets really slow to do the select from Lookup table for every row.
Why not simply use a join?
SELECT <columns list from main table>, Lt.Name
FROM <main table> As Mt -- Do not use such aliases in real code!
JOIN <SecondaryTable> As St -- this represents your Table3
ON <condition>
[LEFT] JOIN <Lookup table> As Lt
ON Mt.StatusId = Lt.Id
OR (Lt.Id = 3 AND St.Date is not null)
Of course, replace <columns list from main table> with the actual columns list, <main table> with the name of the main table and so on.
The join might be an inner or left join, depending on the nullability of the StatusId column in the main table and if it's nullable, on what you want to get in such cases (either a row with null name or no row at all).
I've put together a little demonstration to show you exactly what I mean.
Create and populate sample tables (Please save us this step in your future questions):
CREATE TABLE LookUp (Id int, Name varchar(10));
INSERT INTO LookUp (Id, Name) VALUES
(1, 'Test'), (2, 'New'), (3, 'InProgress');
CREATE TABLE Table1 (Id int not null, StatusId int null);
INSERT INTO Table1(Id, StatusId)
SELECT n, CASE WHEN n % 3 = 0 THEN NULL ELSE (n % 3) END
FROM
(
SELECT TOP 30 ROW_NUMBER() OVER(ORDER BY ##SPID) As n
FROM sys.objects
) tally
CREATE TABLE Table3
(
Id int not null,
Date date null
)
INSERT INTO Table3 (Id, Date)
SELECT Id, CASE WHEN StatusId IS NULL AND Id % 4 = 0 THEN GetDate() END
FROM Table1
The query:
SELECT Table1.Id,
Table1.StatusId,
Table3.Date,
LookUp.Name
FROM Table1
JOIN Table3
ON Table1.Id = Table3.Id
LEFT JOIN LookUp
ON Table1.StatusId = LookUp.Id
OR (LookUp.Id = 3 AND Table3.Date IS NOT NULL)
Results:
Id StatusId Date Name
1 1 NULL Test
2 2 NULL New
3 NULL NULL NULL
4 1 NULL Test
5 2 NULL New
6 NULL NULL NULL
7 1 NULL Test
8 2 NULL New
9 NULL NULL NULL
10 1 NULL Test
11 2 NULL New
12 NULL 27.06.2019 InProgress
13 1 NULL Test
14 2 NULL New
15 NULL NULL NULL
16 1 NULL Test
17 2 NULL New
18 NULL NULL NULL
19 1 NULL Test
20 2 NULL New
21 NULL NULL NULL
22 1 NULL Test
23 2 NULL New
24 NULL 27.06.2019 InProgress
25 1 NULL Test
26 2 NULL New
27 NULL NULL NULL
28 1 NULL Test
29 2 NULL New
30 NULL NULL NULL
You can also see a live demo on rextester.
Create a SQL function which return Name according to Id.
Create FUNCTION [dbo].[GetLookUpValue]
(
#Id int
)
RETURNS varchar(500)
AS BEGIN
return(Select Name from LOOKUP_table with(nolock) where Id=#Id)
END
MS SQL Server 2014
Considering a table like this:
idkey companyid |column 1 |column 2
------------------------------------------------
1 0 apple fruit 1
2 0 orange fruit 2
3 0 grapes fruit 3
4 10 banana fruit 2
CompanyId = 0 is the default list of values; other company ids can override individual values or take the default list.
Note that for companyid = 10, 'fruit 2' has a different value specified for column 1.
How do I select companyid 0's values with the company 10 override, as in:
idkey companyid |column 1 |column 2
------------------------------------------------
1 0 apple fruit 1
4 10 banana fruit 2
3 0 grapes fruit 3
Is there a way to do this with a single SQL statement, or do I need to create a stored procedure and temp table? I've searched quite a bit, but apparently can't find a way to phrase the question simply enough for a search to return useful answers.
select coalesce(t2.idkey, t1.idkey) as idkey,
coalesce(t2.companyid, t1.companyid) as companyid,
coalesce(t2.column1, t1.column1) as column1,
coalesce(t2.column2, t1.column2) as column2
from your_table t1
left join your_table t2 on t1.column2 = t2.column2
and t2.companyid <> 0
where t1.companyid = 0
Say company ID that you are interested in is 10. Your query could be:
declare #id bigint = 10
select
coalesce(t2.idkey, t1.idkey),
coalesce(t2.companyid, t1.companyid) companyid,
coalesce(t2.column1, t1.column1) column1,
t1.column2
from table t1
left join table t2 on t2.companyid = #id and t1.column2 = t2.column2
It makes sense to create a stored procedure or table-valued function with a single #id parameter
create procedure tableWithOverrides(#id bigint)
as
begin
select
coalesce(t2.idkey, t1.idkey),
coalesce(t2.companyid, t1.companyid) companyid,
coalesce(t2.column1, t1.column1) column1,
t1.column2
from table t1
left join table t2 on t2.companyid = #id and t1.column2 = t2.column2
end
I have a temp table with the following structure:
StudentID VALUE
1 5
2 NULL
and need to map the values from it to the table below:
StudentID DEPT
1 1
1 2
2 3
2 4
So the output should be like this:
StudentID DEPT VALUE
1 1 5
1 2 5
2 3 NULL
2 4 NULL
Do I need to use join or merge my table consisits of million record?
I have tried using joins but i am not getting exact what i need?
a JOIN. like this:
SELECT S.StudentId, S.Dept, V.Value
FROM Student AS S
JOIN #TEMP AS V
ON V.StudentId = S.StudentId
ORDER BY V.StudentId
SELECT table2.StudentID
,table2.DEPT
,#TEMP.Value
FROM table2
LEFT JOIN #TEMP
ON table2.StudentID = #TEMP.StudentID